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A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?
- A. PC for after meals
- B. QD for every day
- C. BID for twice a day
- D. PRN for as needed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.
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A client asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. They allow the court to overrule an adult client's refusal of medical treatment.
- B. They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness.
- C. They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.
- D. They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client's condition.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Advance directives specify the type of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or avoid in the event of a serious illness. Choice A is incorrect because advance directives do not allow the court to overrule a client's refusal of medical treatment; they empower the client to make their own healthcare decisions. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives do not permit a client to withhold medical information; they provide guidance on the client's treatment preferences. Choice D is incorrect because advance directives do not specifically address the actions of health care personnel in the emergency department; they focus on the client's treatment preferences in general.
A client with a terminal illness asks the nurse about what would happen if she arrived at the emergency department and had difficulty breathing, despite declining resuscitation in her living will. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?
- A. We will determine who the durable power of attorney for health care form has designated.
- B. We will apply oxygen through a tube in your nose.
- C. We will ask if you have changed your mind.
- D. We will insert a breathing tube while we evaluate your condition.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to provide oxygen through a tube in the client's nose. Oxygen therapy can offer comfort and support breathing without being considered resuscitative. Therefore, this intervention aligns with the client's wish to decline resuscitation. Option A is not directly related to addressing the client's immediate breathing difficulty. Option C does not acknowledge the client's living will decision. Option D involves a more invasive procedure that may go against the client's wishes to decline resuscitation.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
- B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
- C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
- D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who has new onset dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. This sudden dyspnea could indicate a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with a low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important concerns but are not as immediately life-threatening as potential pulmonary embolism indicated by sudden dyspnea postoperatively.
A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
- B. Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
- C. Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substance cabinet
- D. Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In medication wastage situations involving controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse observe and verify the disposal process. This practice ensures accountability and prevents any mishandling or diversion of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because notifying the pharmacy is not the immediate action required in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as locking the remaining medication in the controlled substance cabinet without proper witnessing does not ensure accountability. Choice D is incorrect as disposing of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container does not address the need for a witness to verify the wastage of the controlled substance.
A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.