Nokea
A healthcare professional is preparing for change of shift. Which document or tool should the healthcare professional use to communicate?
- A. SBAR
- B. SOAP
- C. DAR
- D. PIE
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating critical information during shift changes or handoffs. It helps to ensure important details about a patient's condition and care are effectively communicated. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a note-taking format used in healthcare to document patient encounters, but it is not specifically designed for shift handoffs. Choice C, DAR (Data, Action, Response), and choice D, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), are not commonly used communication tools during shift changes in healthcare settings. Therefore, the correct choice is SBAR for effective communication during shift handoffs.
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An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
- B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
- C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
- D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.
A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.
A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?
- A. You will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor in 8 weeks.
- B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.
- C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking.
- D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.
A young adult client is receiving instruction from a healthcare provider about health promotion and illness prevention. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?
- A. "I had my immunizations as a child, so I'm protected in that area."
- B. "It is important to schedule routine health care visits even if I am feeling well."
- C. "I will go to an urgent care center for my routine medical care."
- D. "There's no reason to seek help if I am feeling stressed as it's just part of life."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scheduling routine health care visits, even when feeling well, is crucial for early detection and prevention of health issues. This proactive approach allows healthcare providers to monitor overall health, provide preventive care, and address any emerging health concerns promptly. Choice A is incorrect because past immunizations do not cover all potential diseases; regular check-ups are still necessary. Choice C is incorrect as urgent care centers are not designed for routine medical care. Choice D is incorrect as seeking help for stress is important for mental well-being and should not be dismissed as a normal part of life.
A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission, the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively, the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Administer the PRN dose of Albuterol
- C. Apply oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula
- D. Repeat the peak flow reading in 30 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client with moderate persistent asthma experiencing a drop in peak flow and chest tightness post-operatively, the first action the nurse should take is to administer the PRN dose of Albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice A) can be done after initiating immediate treatment with Albuterol. Applying oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the bronchospasm with Albuterol is the priority. Repeating the peak flow reading (choice D) can be considered after administering Albuterol to assess the response to treatment.