Nokea
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 tablets. To administer 0.25 mg of digoxin daily using 0.125 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet is 0.125 mg, so 2 tablets will equal 0.25 mg, which is the required dose. The other choices are incorrect because administering 1 tablet would only provide 0.125 mg (half the required dose), administering 3 tablets would provide 0.375 mg (exceeding the required dose), and administering 4 tablets would provide 0.5 mg (double the required dose). Thus, the correct answer is to administer 2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 0.25 mg dose.
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The nurse is providing an educational workshop about coronary artery disease (CAD) and its risk factors. The nurse explains to participants that CAD has many risk factors, some that can be controlled and some that cannot. What risk factors should the nurse list that can be controlled or modified?
- A. Gender, obesity, family history, and smoking
- B. Inactivity, stress, gender, and smoking
- C. Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking
- D. Stress, family history, and obesity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking are modifiable risk factors for CAD. High cholesterol levels can be controlled through diet and medication. Hypertension can be managed through lifestyle changes and medication. Smoking is a behavior that can be modified.
A is incorrect because gender and family history are non-modifiable risk factors. Obesity can be controlled but is not listed in the correct answer.
B is incorrect because inactivity and stress are modifiable risk factors, but gender is not modifiable.
D is incorrect because stress and family history are non-modifiable risk factors, and obesity is not listed in the correct answer.
A client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Administer a diuretic.
- D. Continue to monitor the CVP.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A CVP of 15 mm Hg in a client with sepsis may indicate fluid overload or cardiac dysfunction, which require prompt medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for timely assessment and appropriate management. Administering a fluid bolus (A) without further evaluation can exacerbate fluid overload. Administering a diuretic (C) without knowing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the CVP (D) is important, but immediate action is required due to the high CVP level.
An older adult with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease has been experiencing fecal incontinence, with no recent change in stool character noted by the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?
- A. Keep a food diary to identify foods that worsen the client's symptoms
- B. Provide the client with a bland, low-residue diet
- C. Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis
- D. Collaborate with the primary provider to secure an order for loperamide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. This intervention is appropriate for managing fecal incontinence in individuals with Alzheimer's disease. By establishing a routine for toileting, the nurse can help the client maintain continence and reduce the risk of accidents. This approach also promotes dignity and independence for the client.
A: Keeping a food diary may be helpful for identifying triggers of fecal incontinence, but it is not the most immediate intervention in this case.
B: Providing a bland, low-residue diet may not directly address the issue of fecal incontinence and may not be necessary if there has been no recent change in stool character.
D: Securing an order for loperamide may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for managing fecal incontinence in this scenario.
The nurse has completed the admission assessment of a client and has determined that the client's body mass index (BMI) is 33.5 kg/m2. What health promotion advice should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. It would be very helpful if you could integrate more physical activity into your routine.
- B. You're considered to be overweight, so you should be diligent about maintaining a healthy diet.
- C. You might want to consider some of the surgical options that have been developed for treating obesity.
- D. With your permission, I'd like you to refer to a support group for individuals who live with severe obesity.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A):
1. BMI of 33.5 indicates the client is in the overweight category.
2. Physical activity can help in weight management and improving overall health.
3. Integrating physical activity can help in reducing weight and lowering BMI.
4. Health promotion advice should focus on lifestyle changes rather than surgical interventions or support groups.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: While maintaining a healthy diet is important, focusing solely on diet may not be as effective as incorporating physical activity for weight management.
C: Surgical options are typically considered for severe obesity cases, which may not be necessary at a BMI of 33.5.
D: Referring to a support group for severe obesity may not be appropriate at this stage as lifestyle modifications should be the initial approach.
The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Red man syndrome.
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- C. Mild itching at the IV site.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red man syndrome. This is a severe adverse reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. It can progress rapidly to anaphylaxis. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within normal range, mild itching at the IV site is common and can be managed topically, and nausea and vomiting are common side effects of vancomycin but are not life-threatening compared to Red man syndrome.