A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is at risk for nephrotoxicity due to medications. Which of the following serum creatinine results does the healthcare professional document as normal?
- A. 0.2 mg/dL
- B. 1.0 mg/dL
- C. 2.8 mg/dL
- D. 3.9 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The normal serum creatinine level typically ranges from 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. A result of 1.0 mg/dL falls within this normal range. A serum creatinine level of 0.2 mg/dL is abnormally low and may indicate decreased muscle mass or malnutrition. On the other hand, results of 2.8 mg/dL and 3.9 mg/dL are elevated, signifying impaired kidney function and potential nephrotoxicity from medications.
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A patient is diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. Which antibiotic will the nurse expect the provider to order to treat this infection?
- A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
- B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
- C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
- D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Erythromycin is the drug of choice for treating Mycoplasma pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumonia is typically sensitive to macrolide antibiotics, with erythromycin being one of the first-line agents. Azithromycin and clarithromycin are also effective in treating Mycoplasma pneumonia, but erythromycin is specifically mentioned as the drug of choice in this context. Fidaxomicin, on the other hand, is not indicated for the treatment of Mycoplasma pneumonia and is primarily used to treat Clostridium difficile infections.
After a renal biopsy, which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care?
- A. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours
- B. Periodically testing the urine for occult blood
- C. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics
- D. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a renal biopsy, it is essential to maintain bed rest and frequently assess the client's vital signs and the puncture site. The nurse should test the urine periodically for occult blood to detect any bleeding, which could be a complication of the procedure. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours is not necessary after a renal biopsy and could potentially lead to dehydration. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics is not a standard intervention post-renal biopsy unless contraindicated for a specific reason. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances is generally not recommended immediately after a renal biopsy due to the need for bed rest to prevent complications.
After teaching a client with renal cancer who is prescribed temsirolimus (Torisel), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication with food and plenty of water.
- B. I shall keep my appointment at the infusion center each week.
- C. I'll limit my intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication.
- D. I must not take this medication if I have an infection or am feeling ill.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Temsirolimus, also known as Torisel, is administered as a weekly intravenous infusion. This medication blocks protein needed for cell division, inhibiting cell cycle progression. It is not taken orally, so there is no need to take it with food or water. Keeping the weekly infusion center appointment is crucial for the client to receive the prescribed treatment effectively. Choice A is incorrect as temsirolimus is not taken with food or water. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to limit the intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication. Choice D is incorrect as having an infection or feeling ill does not prohibit the use of temsirolimus.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?
- A. A complete blood count
- B. BUN and creatinine
- C. Electrolytes
- D. Glucose
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.
A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
- B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
- C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
- D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.