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A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Ibuprofen
- C. Clopidogrel
- D. Metoprolol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.
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A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?
- A. A client receives antibiotics 2 hours late.
- B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking morning medications.
- C. A client requests a statin to be administered at 2100.
- D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering antibiotics late must be reported as it can compromise the effectiveness of the treatment. This delay can lead to subtherapeutic levels of the antibiotic in the client's system, potentially reducing its efficacy in combating the infection. Choice B, a client vomiting shortly after taking medication, should be noted but does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is a frequent occurrence. It could indicate a possible adverse reaction or intolerance to the medication. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication slightly earlier, do not involve medication errors or deviations that pose immediate risks to the client's health, so they do not require incident reports.
A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) should have naloxone administered if their respiratory rate is below 10/min. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 4 hours.
- B. Ask the client to rate their pain every 2 hours.
- C. Administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate is below 10/min.
- D. Evaluate the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate falls below 10/min. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening situation. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every 4 hours (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as respiratory depression requires immediate attention. Asking the client to rate their pain every 2 hours (Choice B) is important for pain management but addressing respiratory depression takes precedence. Evaluating the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours (Choice D) is a routine nursing intervention but does not directly address the urgent need to reverse respiratory depression in this case.
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?
- A. aPTT 75 seconds.
- B. INR 1.2.
- C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
- D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a client with a prescription for combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Thrombophlebitis
- C. Diverticulosis
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect thyroid hormone levels but does not directly contraindicate oral contraceptives. Diverticulosis is a condition related to the digestive system and does not impact the use of oral contraceptives. Hypocalcemia, a low calcium level in the blood, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives.
A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client supine.
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
- C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
- D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.