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A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?
- A. Pulling the pinna up and back
- B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
- C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
- D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.
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The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
The client has an order for 0.45 mg of Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?
- A. 0.15 mL
- B. 6.6 mL
- C. 1.5 mL
- D. 0.65 Ml
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount of drug to be administered, divide the ordered dose by the concentration of the medication in the vial. In this case, 0.45 mg ÷ 3 mg/mL = 0.15 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.15 mL.
Choice B (6.6 mL) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (1.5 mL) is incorrect as it is not the result of dividing the ordered dose by the concentration. Choice D (0.65 mL) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
When examining the abdomen, a nurse auscultates before palpating and percussing the abdomen. The nurse performs the assessment in this manner for which reason?
- A. It is less painful for the client.
- B. Palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis.
- C. It identifies any potential areas of abdominal tenderness.
- D. It gives the client more time to become comfortable with the examiner.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When performing an abdominal assessment, the nurse auscultates the abdomen after inspection. Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because these assessment techniques can increase peristalsis, which would yield a false interpretation of bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent false interpretations of bowel sounds due to increased peristalsis caused by palpation and percussion. Options A, C, and D provide incorrect reasons for auscultating the abdomen before palpating and percussing it.
What classification of drug is Diltiazem?
- A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
- B. NSAID
- C. ACE Inhibitor
- D. Beta-Blocker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.
The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?
- A. I'm worried that my child is not using two-word phrases yet.
- B. My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.
- C. My child seems to have developed separation anxiety when I leave.
- D. I'm letting my child use a spoon to eat.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.