A healthcare professional reviewing the health care record of a client notes documentation of grade 4 muscle strength. The healthcare professional understands that this indicates:
- A. Full ROM with gravity
- B. Full ROM against gravity with full resistance
- C. Full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion)
- D. Full ROM against gravity with some resistance
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Muscle strength is graded on a scale of 0 to 5. A grade of 5 indicates normal strength and is described as full ROM against gravity with full resistance. Grade 4 indicates good strength and full ROM against gravity with some resistance. Grade 3 indicates fair strength and full ROM with gravity. Grade 2 indicates poor strength and full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion). Grade 1 indicates trace strength and slight contraction. Grade 0 indicates zero strength and no contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Full ROM against gravity with some resistance.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the description of muscle strength associated with a grade of 4.
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Which of the following would likely not impede learning?
- A. a client who took Ambien® an hour ago
- B. a bipolar client currently in a manic phase
- C. a client who states they are not interested
- D. a client with dysphagia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a client who states they are not interested. While lack of interest can hinder learning motivation, it is not a physical or mental barrier that directly impacts the learning process. On the other hand, a client who took Ambien® an hour ago may experience drowsiness or impaired cognitive function, affecting their ability to learn. A bipolar client in a manic phase may exhibit symptoms such as racing thoughts, distractibility, and impulsivity, making it challenging for them to focus and engage in the learning process. A client with dysphagia may have difficulty swallowing, which can interfere with their ability to take oral medications or participate in activities that involve swallowing.
All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:
- A. high infant mortality rate
- B. frequent use of Emergency Departments
- C. consultation with folk healers
- D. low incidence of dental problems
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Factors correlated with poverty often include a high infant mortality rate, frequent use of Emergency Departments, and consultation with folk healers, as these indicate limited access to healthcare. Dental problems are prevalent in poverty due to a lack of preventive care and access to treatments. High infant mortality is a significant issue linked with poverty as it reflects poor healthcare access. Families in poverty might resort to Emergency Departments for healthcare due to financial barriers. Consulting folk healers is common in communities with limited access to formal healthcare. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in impoverished families due to the lack of preventive services and the presence of other health issues.
A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?
- A. Pulling the pinna up and back
- B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
- C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
- D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.
A mother brings her 1-year-old child to the clinic. The child has no record of previous immunizations, and the mother confirms the child has not been immunized. Teaching by the nurse should include which of the following?
- A. Immunizations may be started at any age.
- B. The recommended immunization schedule should be followed.
- C. If a primary series of immunizations is interrupted, it can be continued.
- D. Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Immunizations may be started at any age.' While there is a recommended immunization schedule, immunizations can be initiated at any age. It is essential to emphasize the flexibility in starting immunizations. The statement 'The recommended immunization schedule should be followed' is too rigid; while recommended, there is flexibility in initiation. Choice C is correct as an interrupted series can be continued without restarting. The statement 'Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction' is correct. Delaying does not increase the risk of reaction; in fact, it is important to start immunizations to protect the child and the community.
During data collection of a client with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, a nurse plans to perform the Phalen test. The nurse should ask the client to perform which activity?
- A. Dorsiflex the foot
- B. Plantarflex the foot
- C. Hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees for 60 seconds
- D. Hyperextend the fingers with the palmar surfaces of the hands touching, holding the position for 60 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the Phalen test, the nurse asks the client to hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. This position puts pressure on the median nerve, eliciting symptoms in carpal tunnel syndrome. Dorsiflexing or plantarflexing the foot and hyperextending the fingers are not associated with testing for carpal tunnel syndrome. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand.