Nokea
A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the provider expect?
- A. Bulging Fontanels
- B. Nasal Flaring
- C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
- D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Upon admission to the nursery, a healthcare provider should expect the newborn's chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference. This is a normal finding in newborns due to their physiological development. Bulging fontanels (Choice A) can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is abnormal. Nasal flaring (Choice B) is a sign of respiratory distress and is also an abnormal finding. While a length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in) (Choice C) falls within the normal range for newborns, it is not a specific expectation upon admission to the nursery. Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn upon admission is for the chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference.
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A primigravida at 36 weeks gestation who is RH-negative experienced abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate at 162 beats per minute
- B. Mild contractions every 10 minutes
- C. Trace of protein in the urine
- D. Positive fetal hemoglobin testing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Positive fetal hemoglobin testing' (D). Positive fetal hemoglobin testing (Kleihauer-Betke test) indicates fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is critical in an RH-negative mother due to the risk of isoimmunization. This condition can lead to sensitization of the mother's immune system against fetal blood cells, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial for appropriate management and interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this scenario. While monitoring fetal heart rate and contractions is important, the detection of fetal-maternal hemorrhage takes precedence due to the serious implications it poses for the current and future pregnancies of an RH-negative mother.
What causes sickle-cell anemia?
- A. A chromosomal abnormality.
- B. A single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
- C. A recessive gene.
- D. A decrease in estrogen levels.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. The correct answer is C. Choice A is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is not primarily caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Choice B is incorrect as the condition is not linked to a single segment found only on the Y chromosome. Choice D is unrelated as it mentions a decrease in estrogen levels, which is not a cause of sickle-cell anemia.
The healthcare provider prescribes 10 units per liter of oxytocin via IV drip to augment a client's labor because she is experiencing a prolonged active phase. Which finding would cause the nurse to immediately discontinue the oxytocin?
- A. Contraction duration of 100 seconds.
- B. Four contractions in 10 minutes.
- C. Uterus is soft.
- D. Early deceleration of fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds is too long and can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and other complications. This prolonged contraction duration suggests that the uterus is not relaxing adequately between contractions, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Choice B, 'Four contractions in 10 minutes,' is a sign of tachysystole, which is concerning but not as immediately critical as the prolonged contraction duration. Choice C, 'Uterus is soft,' is not a reason to discontinue oxytocin; in fact, it is a normal finding. Choice D, 'Early deceleration of fetal heart rate,' while indicating fetal distress, is not a direct result of the oxytocin and may require intervention but not immediate discontinuation of the medication.
What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?
- A. Amniocentesis
- B. Mitosis
- C. Meiosis
- D. Mutation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.
Monozygotic (MZ) twins are known as fraternal twins.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Possibly
- D. Never
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'FALSE.' Monozygotic (MZ) twins are identical twins, not fraternal. Fraternal twins are dizygotic (DZ). The statement in the question is incorrect as MZ twins are genetically identical, while fraternal twins actually refer to dizygotic twins who develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Therefore, monozygotic twins are not known as fraternal twins, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the relationship between monozygotic and fraternal twins.