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A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Weight gain
- D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.
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When teaching a client with a new prescription for Furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Change positions slowly.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide at bedtime (Choice A) is not necessary as it can be taken at any time of the day. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice B) is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics. Taking Furosemide with meals (Choice D) may lead to increased diuretic effects and frequent urination.
A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?
- A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
- B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
- C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
- D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Belimumab for a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Warm the medication to room temperature before administering.
- B. Administer the medication by slow IV infusion over the recommended time frame.
- C. Dilute the medication in an appropriate solution as per manufacturer guidelines.
- D. Monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should plan to take when administering Belimumab is to monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions. Belimumab is known to cause severe infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis in some cases. Monitoring for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial to detect and manage any adverse reactions promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because warming the medication, administering by slow IV infusion, and dilution are not specific actions needed for Belimumab administration. The priority is to monitor the client for potential hypersensitivity reactions to ensure their safety.
A client has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to a non-hairy area.
- B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
- C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
- D. Do not cut the patch to adjust the dosage.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client using a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, potentially causing an overdose. Instructing the client to avoid heat sources is crucial to ensure their safety and the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a non-hairy area, changing it every 72 hours, and not cutting the patch are general guidelines for using transdermal patches but do not specifically address the unique risks associated with Fentanyl patches.
A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Contact the provider if the heart rate is less than 60/min.
- B. Check the pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiply the result by 2.
- C. Increase the intake of sodium.
- D. Take with food if nausea occurs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for clients on Digoxin to monitor their heart rate. A heart rate less than 60/min can indicate bradycardia, a potential side effect of Digoxin. Therefore, the client should be instructed to contact the provider if their heart rate is less than 60/min to prevent complications and receive appropriate management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Checking the pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not specific to Digoxin administration. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated as Digoxin can lead to sodium retention. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs is not recommended as it may affect the drug's absorption.