Nokea
A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Insert the IV catheter without using a tourniquet.
- B. Use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to avoid injury to fragile skin or veins.
- C. Insert the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle.
- D. Use a smaller gauge catheter to reduce vein trauma.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.
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A client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of congestive heart failure. Which of the following assessments would the nurse expect to be consistent with this problem?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Pallor
- C. Inspiratory crackles
- D. Heart murmur
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Inspiratory crackles are a common finding in patients with congestive heart failure due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to crackling sounds during inspiration. Chest pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like angina or myocardial infarction and is not a typical symptom of congestive heart failure. Pallor (Choice B) is a general symptom of various conditions and not specific to congestive heart failure. While a heart murmur (Choice D) may be heard in some cases of congestive heart failure, it is not as consistent as inspiratory crackles in indicating the condition.
During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
- B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
- C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
- D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication prescription, which reads, 'digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.' Which of the following components of the prescription should the healthcare professional question?
- A. the medication
- B. the route
- C. the dose
- D. the frequency
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare professional should question the dose indicated in the prescription. In this case, '0.25' is incomplete without a unit of measurement, such as mg (milligrams). Without a specified unit, the dose lacks the necessary information for accurate administration. Choices A, B, and D are not incorrect components to question in medication prescriptions; however, in this scenario, the incompleteness of the dose is the most critical concern that needs clarification to ensure safe and effective medication administration.
A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Droplet
- B. Contact
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.
A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?
- A. Pain related to ischemia
- B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
- C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
- D. Anxiety related to pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.