Nokea
A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
- B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.
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What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with kidney disease?
- A. Monitor blood pressure and provide dietary education
- B. Monitor urine output and provide IV fluids
- C. Administer diuretics and restrict fluid intake
- D. Monitor for cardiac arrhythmias and provide dialysis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nurses play a crucial role in managing patients with kidney disease by monitoring blood pressure and providing essential dietary education. This helps in maintaining kidney function and overall health. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring urine output and providing IV fluids are tasks usually performed by healthcare providers such as physicians or specialized staff. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics and restricting fluid intake are typically prescribed by a physician, and nurses may assist in monitoring the effects. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias and providing dialysis are tasks that are usually overseen by healthcare providers with specialized training in cardiology and nephrology.
What are the key signs of respiratory distress?
- A. Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles
- B. Decreased respiratory rate and cyanosis
- C. Cyanosis and use of accessory muscles
- D. Altered mental status and bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication into the client's nondominant arm.
- B. Pull the skin laterally before inserting the needle.
- C. Massage the injection site after administration.
- D. Pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin subcutaneously is to pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger. Pinching the skin helps to lift the subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of injecting into the muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not relevant as the injection site for enoxaparin is typically in the abdomen or thigh, not the arm. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the skin laterally is not a recommended technique for subcutaneous injections. Choice C is also incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising.
What is an important consideration when administering a blood transfusion?
- A. Ensure the blood is compatible with the recipient's blood type
- B. Warm the blood to body temperature before administration
- C. Check the blood for clots before administration
- D. Ensure the recipient eats before the transfusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the blood is compatible with the recipient's blood type. This is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions, which can be life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect because warming blood to body temperature is not a standard practice and may lead to hemolysis. Choice C is incorrect as blood products are carefully screened for clots before distribution. Choice D is incorrect because it is not necessary for the recipient to eat before a blood transfusion.
A client has a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Place the tablet under the tongue and wait 10 minutes
- B. Take up to five tablets during an angina episode
- C. Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode
- D. Swallow the tablet with water
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode.' Nitroglycerin can be taken up to three times during an episode to relieve angina. Choice A is incorrect because the client should place the tablet under the tongue and wait for it to dissolve, not wait for 10 minutes. Choice B is incorrect because taking up to five tablets during an angina episode is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets are meant to be taken sublingually, not swallowed.