Nokea
A healthcare provider is screening patients for various vaccines. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?
- A. Diphtheria
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Mumps
- D. Tetanus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Mumps. The Mumps vaccine, along with the Rubella vaccine, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of affecting the developing fetus. Diphtheria, Hepatitis B, and Tetanus vaccines are considered safe during pregnancy and are often recommended to protect both the pregnant individual and the developing fetus. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
You may also like to solve these questions
When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?
- A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
- B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
- C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
- D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.
A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
- A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
- B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
- C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
- D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.
The nurse is caring for a burn victim with a skin graft to the hand. The area is pale and mottled but has good capillary refill. What is the nurse's best action at this time?
- A. Warm the room
- B. Submerge the hand in warm water
- C. Order a K pad and apply to hand
- D. Have the client exercise the fingers to increase blood flow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a burn victim with a skin graft to the hand, exhibiting pale and mottled skin but good capillary refill, is to warm the room. By warming the room, the nurse helps promote circulation and maintain a conducive environment for healing. Submerging the hand in warm water can pose a risk of injury or infection to the graft site. Ordering a K pad and applying it to the hand may not be necessary at this time and could potentially cause harm. Having the client exercise the fingers to increase blood flow is also not recommended as it may interfere with the healing process of the skin graft.
The client is undergoing progressive ambulation on the third day after a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation would indicate that the client should not be advanced to the next level?
- A. Facial flushing
- B. A complaint of chest heaviness
- C. Heart rate increase of 10 beats/min
- D. Systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is a complaint of chest heaviness. Onset of chest pain indicates myocardial ischemia, which can be life-threatening. Chest pain in a client post-myocardial infarction should be promptly evaluated, and the activity level should not be advanced. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options because facial flushing, a heart rate increase of 10 beats/min, and a systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm Hg are not typical indicators of myocardial ischemia or necessarily contraindications for advancing activity levels in this context.
The nurse is caring for a client with decreased cardiac output secondary to heart failure with fluid volume overload. The effects of diminished renal perfusion will have which physiologic response?
- A. Diuresis
- B. Increased fluid retention
- C. Elevated bicarbonate level
- D. Paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When there is diminished renal perfusion due to decreased cardiac output, the kidneys receive less blood flow. This leads to a decrease in urine output and an increase in fluid retention, as the kidneys are not able to effectively filter and excrete excess fluid. Elevated bicarbonate level and paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis are not typically associated with diminished renal perfusion in heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased fluid retention.'