Nokea
A healthcare provider is witnessing a client sign an informed consent form for surgery. Which of the following describes what the healthcare provider is affirming by this action?
- A. The signature on the preoperative consent form is the client's
- B. The client understands the risks of the surgery
- C. The client is aware of all postoperative care instructions
- D. The client has no further questions about the surgery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a healthcare provider witnesses a client signing an informed consent form for surgery, they are affirming that the signature on the form belongs to the client. This is crucial for ensuring patient autonomy and informed decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while it is important for the client to understand the risks of surgery, be aware of postoperative care instructions, and have an opportunity to ask questions, these elements are not specifically affirmed by the healthcare provider witnessing the signature.
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Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
- A. 0.5 tablet
- B. 1 tablet
- C. 1.5 tablets
- D. 2 tablets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.
A client who is non-ambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Evacuate the client
- B. Attempt to extinguish the fire
- C. Call the fire department
- D. Close the door to contain the fire
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to Evacuate the client (Choice A). In the event of a fire, the safety of the client is the top priority. The RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish) mnemonic is used in fire emergencies. The first step is to Rescue or Evacuate the individual from immediate danger. Attempting to extinguish the fire (Choice B) may endanger both the client and the nurse. Calling the fire department (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety. Closing the door to contain the fire (Choice D) is not appropriate in this scenario because the priority is to remove the client from harm's way.
During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Mini-Mental State Examination
- D. Babinski reflex
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.
After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?
- A. Administer the enema solution.
- B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
- C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
- D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.
The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements?
- A. The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum.
- B. In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.
- C. Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg.
- D. This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.