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A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?
- A. Encourage them to initiate daily rituals.
- B. Reinforce the reality of their financial situation.
- C. Direct them to drink a glass of red wine at bedtime.
- D. Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.
Rationale:
1. Sugar and caffeine intake can exacerbate anxiety and interfere with sleep due to their stimulant effects.
2. Limiting these substances can help regulate the body's energy levels and reduce anxiety symptoms.
3. By teaching the client to limit sugar and caffeine intake, the nurse is addressing the root causes of the client's sleeplessness and anxiety.
Summary:
A: Encouraging daily rituals may provide structure but does not directly address the physiological effects of sugar and caffeine on anxiety.
B: Reinforcing the reality of the financial situation may increase anxiety rather than alleviate it.
C: Drinking red wine at bedtime is not a recommended solution for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.
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What dietary advice should the nurse provide to help reduce the occurrence of hot flashes in a post-menopausal client?
- A. Increase intake of spicy foods.
- B. Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption.
- C. Consume a high-protein diet.
- D. Eat more dairy products.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption. Hot flashes can be triggered by stimulants like caffeine and alcohol. Limiting intake can help reduce their occurrence. Increasing spicy foods (A) can actually worsen hot flashes. High-protein diets (C) and consuming more dairy products (D) do not have a direct impact on hot flashes.
A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
- B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
- C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
- D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours. In a patient with urinary sepsis, timely administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications. Piperacillin/tazobactam is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria commonly involved in sepsis. Administering it first ensures prompt initiation of treatment. Other choices (B) Vancomycin, (C) Pantoprazole, and (D) Enoxaparin are important medications but are not as time-sensitive in this scenario. Vancomycin and Enoxaparin have longer administration times, and Pantoprazole is a maintenance medication that is not urgent in the acute management of sepsis.
A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Urine output of 100 mL/hour.
- B. Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute.
- D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. Elevated ICP can lead to increased intracranial pressure, which can further damage brain tissue and impair cerebral perfusion. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent further brain damage.
A: Urine output of 100 mL/hour is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition.
C: Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate concern.
D: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg is within the normal range for most adults and does not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?
- A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
- B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
- C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
- D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
Rationale:
1. The ECG rhythm shows regular narrow complex tachycardia, likely supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
2. Adenosine is the first-line medication for terminating SVT by blocking conduction through the AV node.
3. Adenosine is given rapidly as a bolus dose followed by a saline flush to ensure quick delivery to the heart.
4. Adenosine has a very short half-life, making it safe to use in this scenario.
Summary:
A: Magnesium is not the first-line treatment for SVT.
B: Heparin is not indicated for the management of SVT.
D: Synchronized cardioversion is reserved for unstable patients with hemodynamic compromise, not indicated for stable SVT.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse's response?
- A. Noncompliance is probably affecting optimal medication effectiveness.
- B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to three times a day.
- C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
- D. NSAID response is variable, and trying another NSAID may be more effective.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: NSAID response is variable - Different individuals respond differently to NSAIDs like naproxen due to genetic and physiological differences.
Step 2: Trying another NSAID may be more effective - If the current NSAID is not effective, switching to a different one with a different mechanism of action may provide better pain relief.
Step 3: Individualized approach - Tailoring the treatment to the individual's response is key in managing osteoarthritis pain effectively.
Summary: Choice D is correct as it acknowledges the variability in NSAID response and suggests trying another NSAID if the current one is ineffective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the variable response to NSAIDs and do not provide a solution to address the lack of pain relief.