Nokea
A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level
- B. Elevated liver function profile
- C. Increased white blood cell count
- D. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.
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A female client on the psychiatric unit tells the nurse that she feels like ending her life because she can no longer deal with her depression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Stay with the client and ensure her safety.
- B. Inform the client that she is safe in the hospital.
- C. Document the client's statements in her medical record.
- D. Encourage the client to join a group therapy session.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stay with the client and ensure her safety. Ensuring the client's safety is the top priority when a client expresses suicidal ideation. Staying with the client can help prevent self-harm while further assessment and interventions are arranged. Choice B is incorrect because simply informing the client that she is safe in the hospital does not address the immediate need for safety. Choice C is incorrect as while documentation is important, it is not the priority when a client's safety is at risk. Choice D is also incorrect as encouraging the client to join a group therapy session is not appropriate when the client is in crisis and expressing suicidal thoughts.
A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
- B. Monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior.
- C. Praise the client for the apparent improvement.
- D. Discuss the client's progress with the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior.
- C. Restrict the client's access to the locks.
- D. Schedule specific times for the client to check the locks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks locks is to encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior. By exploring the underlying anxiety and triggers, the client can work towards understanding and managing their compulsions. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to continue the behavior does not address the root cause or help modify the behavior. Choice C is inappropriate as restricting access to locks can increase anxiety and worsen symptoms. Choice D of scheduling specific times for checking locks does not address the underlying psychological issues driving the behavior.
An anxious client expressing a fear of people and open places is admitted to the psychiatric unit. What is the most effective way for the nurse to assist this client?
- A. Plan an outing within the second week of admission.
- B. Distract the client whenever they express discomfort about being with others.
- C. Confront the client's fears and discuss the possible causes of these fears.
- D. Accompany the client outside for an increasing amount of time each day.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most effective way to assist a client with a fear of people and open places is through gradual desensitization by controlled exposure to the situation which is feared (D). This method helps the client confront their fears in a safe and supportive manner, allowing them to gradually build confidence and reduce anxiety. Planning an outing within the second week of admission (A) may be too soon and overwhelming for the client. Distracting the client whenever they express discomfort (B) does not address the underlying issue and may promote denial. Confronting the client's fears and discussing possible causes (C) could be too aggressive initially and may not be well-tolerated by the client.
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
- D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat dystonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because thioridazine is not the appropriate medication in this case, a hot pack would not address the underlying issue of dystonia, and occupational therapy is not the primary intervention for addressing acute dystonic reactions.