Nokea
A hospice nurse is caring for a 22-year-old with a terminal diagnosis of leukemia. When updating this patients plan of nursing care, what should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Interventions aimed at maximizing quantity of life
- B. Providing financial advice to pay for care
- C. Providing realistic emotional preparation for death
- D. Making suggestions to maximize family social interactions after the patients death
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing realistic emotional preparation for death is a priority in caring for a patient with a terminal illness like leukemia. This helps the patient and their loved ones cope with the impending loss and make the most of the time left. Option A focuses solely on prolonging life, which may not align with the patient's wishes. Option B, providing financial advice, is important but not the top priority in this situation. Option D, maximizing family social interactions after the patient's death, is not immediate and does not address the patient's emotional needs.
You may also like to solve these questions
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
- A. Platelet count of 50,000/mcL
- B. Liver enzyme levels within normal range
- C. Negative for edema
- D. No evidence of nausea or vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome.
C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome.
D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these
A nurse providing prenatal care to a pregnant woman is addressing measures to reduce her postpartum risk of cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse. What action should the nurse recommend?
- A. Maintenance of good perineal hygiene
- B. Prevention of constipation
- C. Increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum
- D. Performance of pelvic muscle exercises Chapter 58: Breast Cancer: Breast cancer – risks factors, Diagnostic tests and management, Self Breast Exam, Perioperative care: Complications, Rehab, Discharge teaching
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, performance of pelvic muscle exercises. Pelvic muscle exercises, also known as Kegel exercises, help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles which support the bladder, uterus, and bowel. By strengthening these muscles, the risk of developing cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse postpartum is reduced. It is a proactive approach to prevent these conditions.
Choice A, maintenance of good perineal hygiene, is important for preventing infections but does not specifically address the risk of pelvic organ prolapse. Choice B, prevention of constipation, is also important but does not directly target the muscle weakness that contributes to prolapse. Choice C, increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum, is not as effective in preventing prolapse as pelvic muscle exercises.
In summary, pelvic muscle exercises are the most appropriate recommendation as they directly address strengthening the muscles that support the pelvic organs, reducing the risk of prolapse postpartum.
A nurse is preparing to lavage a patient in theemergency department for an overdose. Which tube should the nurse obtain?
- A. Ewald
- B. Dobhoff
- C. Miller-Abbott
- D. Sengstaken-Blakemore
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ewald tube. This tube is used for gastric lavage due to its large diameter and open end which allows for effective suction of gastric contents. The Ewald tube is specifically designed for gastric lavage and is ideal for removing toxins from the stomach.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Dobhoff tube is a small-bore feeding tube, not suitable for gastric lavage.
C: Miller-Abbott tube is used for intestinal decompression, not gastric lavage.
D: Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used for esophageal varices, not gastric lavage.
During discharge teaching the nurse realizes that the patient is not able to read medication bottles accurately and has not been taking her medications consistently at home. How should the nurse intervene most appropriately in this situation?
- A. Ask the social worker to investigate alternative housing arrangements.
- B. Ask the social worker to investigate community support agencies.
- C. Encourage the patient to explore surgical corrections for the vision problem.
- D. Arrange for referral to a rehabilitation facility for vision training.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should arrange for a referral to a rehabilitation facility for vision training. This option directly addresses the patient's inability to read medication bottles accurately due to a vision problem. Vision training can help improve the patient's ability to manage medication independently.
A: Asking the social worker to investigate alternative housing arrangements is not relevant to the patient's vision problem affecting medication management.
B: Asking the social worker to investigate community support agencies may not directly address the patient's vision issue and medication management.
C: Encouraging the patient to explore surgical corrections for the vision problem is not appropriate without considering less invasive options first, such as vision training.
A woman is being treated for a tumor of the left breast. If the patient and her physician opt for prophylactic treatment, the nurse should prepare the woman for what intervention?
- A. More aggressive chemotherapy
- B. Left mastectomy
- C. Radiation therapy
- D. Bilateral mastectomy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bilateral mastectomy. This intervention involves removing both breasts to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in the future. For a woman with a history of breast cancer in one breast, opting for bilateral mastectomy can significantly decrease the likelihood of cancer recurrence. This proactive approach is often recommended for individuals with a high risk of developing breast cancer.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: More aggressive chemotherapy - Chemotherapy is typically used to treat existing cancer cells, not as a prophylactic measure to prevent cancer.
B: Left mastectomy - This option only removes the affected breast, not addressing the risk of cancer developing in the other breast.
C: Radiation therapy - While radiation therapy can be used as part of the treatment for breast cancer, it is not a prophylactic measure to prevent future cancer development in the contralateral breast.