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A male client has heart failure. He has been instructed to gradually increase his activities. Which signs and symptoms of worsening heart failure should the nurse tell him to watch for that would indicate a need for him to lower his activity level?
- A. Pain in his legs when he walks
- B. Thirst, weight loss, and polyuria
- C. Drowsiness and lethargy after his activities
- D. Weight gain, edema in his lower extremities, and shortness of breath
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pain in the legs could be indicative of doing too much too quickly, but not of worsening heart failure. The client should be cautioned to increase his activities slowly. Thirst, weight loss, and frequent urination are not indicative of heart failure. The client should report these symptoms to his physician. Drowsiness and lethargy are not indicative of worsening heart failure. The client should report these symptoms to his physician. All of these symptoms indicate a worsening cardiac condition possibly associated with too much activity. The client's activity level should be evaluated.
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Clients receiving antipsychotic drug therapy will often exhibit extrapyramidal side effects that are reversible with which of the following agents ordered by the physician?
- A. Phenothiazines
- B. Anticholinergics
- C. Anti-Parkinsonian drugs
- D. Tricyclic agents
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This answer is incorrect. Phenothiazines are antipsychotic drugs and produce the symptoms. This answer is correct. Anticholinergic agents are often used prophylactically for extrapyramidal symptoms. They balance cholinergic activity in the basal ganglia of the brain. This answer is incorrect. Anti-Parkinsonian drugs would increase the symptoms. This answer is incorrect. Tricyclic agents are used for symptoms of depression.
A 9-year-old child was in the garage with his father, who was repairing a lawnmower. Some gasoline ignited and caused an explosion. His father was killed, and the child has split-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of his upper body, face, neck, and arms. All of the following nursing diagnoses are included on his care plan. Which of these nursing diagnoses should have top priority during the first 24-48 hours postburn?
- A. Pain related to tissue damage from burns
- B. Potential for infection related to contamination of wounds
- C. Fluid volume deficit related to increased capillary permeability
- D. Potential for impaired gas exchange related to edema of respiratory tract
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: (A, B, C) These answers are all correct; however, maintenance of airway is the top priority. Persons burned about the face and neck during an explosion are also likely to suffer burns of the respiratory tract, which can lead to edema and respiratory arrest.
A client decided early in her pregnancy to breast-feed her first baby. She gave birth to a normal, full-term girl and is now progressing toward the establishment of successful lactation. To remove the baby from her breast, she should be instructed to:
- A. Gently pull the infant away
- B. Withdraw the breast from the infant's mouth
- C. Compress the areolar tissue until the infant drops the nipple from her mouth
- D. Insert a clean finger into the baby's mouth beside the nipple
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Inserting a finger into the infant's mouth breaks suction, allowing nipple removal without trauma. Other methods risk nipple injury.
A type I diabetic client is diagnosed with cellulitis in his right lower extremity. The nurse would expect which of the following to be present in relation to his blood sugar level?
- A. A normal blood sugar level
- B. A decreased blood sugar level
- C. An increased blood sugar level
- D. Fluctuating levels with a predawn increase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperglycemia occurs due to glucose production in response to the stress and illness of cellulitis.
A 52-year-old client who underwent an exploratory laparotomy for a bowel obstruction begins to complain of hunger on the third postoperative day. His nasogastric (NG) tube was removed this morning, and he has an IV of D5W with 0.45% normal saline running at 125 mL/hr. He asks when he can get rid of his IV and start eating. The nurse recognizes that he will be able to begin taking oral fluids and nourishment when:
- A. It is determined that he has no signs of wound infection
- B. He is able to eat a full meal without evidence of nausea or vomiting
- C. The nurse can detect bowel sounds in all four quadrants
- D. His blood pressure returns to its preoperative baseline level or greater
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The absence of wound infection is related to his surgical wound and not to postoperative GI functioning and return of peristalsis. Routine postoperative protocol involves detection of bowel sounds and return of peristalsis before introduction of clear liquids, followed by progression of full liquids and a regular diet versus a full regular meal first. Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction is to assess for the return of bowel sounds within 72 hours after major surgery, because that is when bowel sounds normally return. If unable to detect bowel sounds, the surgeon should be notified immediately and have the client remain NPO. Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction and other major surgeries involves frequent monitoring of vital signs in the immediate postoperative period (in recovery room) and then every 4 hours, or more frequently if the client is unstable, on the nursing unit. This includes assessing for signs of hypovolemic shock. Vital signs usually stabilize within the first 24 hours postoperatively.