Nokea
A male client is admitted to the neurological unit. He has just sustained a C-5 spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding of this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands.
- B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities.
- C. Blood pressure is 110/70 and the apical pulse is 68.
- D. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because shallow, labored respirations at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory distress in a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury. This level of injury compromises the function of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, leading to impaired respiratory effort. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure and subsequent complications. Choices A and B are common findings in clients with spinal cord injuries and do not require immediate intervention. Choice C indicates stable vital signs within normal range, which do not necessitate immediate action.
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A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Urine output of 100 mL/hour.
- B. Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute.
- D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. Elevated ICP can lead to increased intracranial pressure, which can further damage brain tissue and impair cerebral perfusion. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent further brain damage.
A: Urine output of 100 mL/hour is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition.
C: Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate concern.
D: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg is within the normal range for most adults and does not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse's response?
- A. Noncompliance is probably affecting optimal medication effectiveness.
- B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to three times a day.
- C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
- D. NSAID response is variable, and trying another NSAID may be more effective.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: NSAID response is variable - Different individuals respond differently to NSAIDs like naproxen due to genetic and physiological differences.
Step 2: Trying another NSAID may be more effective - If the current NSAID is not effective, switching to a different one with a different mechanism of action may provide better pain relief.
Step 3: Individualized approach - Tailoring the treatment to the individual's response is key in managing osteoarthritis pain effectively.
Summary: Choice D is correct as it acknowledges the variability in NSAID response and suggests trying another NSAID if the current one is ineffective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the variable response to NSAIDs and do not provide a solution to address the lack of pain relief.
A client with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.
- B. I should have my thyroid levels checked regularly.
- C. If I lose weight, I may need an increased dose.
- D. I can stop taking this medication once my symptoms improve.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Levothyroxine is a lifelong medication for hypothyroidism.
2. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to symptom relapse.
3. Symptoms improving doesn't indicate the underlying condition is resolved.
4. Regular monitoring and dose adjustments are crucial.
5. Choice D shows misunderstanding of treatment duration and necessity.
Summary:
A: Correct, taking in the morning maximizes absorption.
B: Correct, monitoring is necessary for dose adjustments.
C: Correct, weight loss can affect thyroid hormone levels.
D: Incorrect, as stopping medication prematurely is not advised.
The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?
- A. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask at all times.
- B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions.
- C. Make sure there are no children under the age of 6 months around the infected child.
- D. Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
Rationale: RSV is highly contagious and can spread through respiratory droplets, making it important to prevent exposing other children to the virus. Even without direct oral contact, the virus can be transmitted. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid putting other children at risk of contracting RSV.
Summary of other choices:
A: Wearing a mask may not be practical for an infant and may not provide sufficient protection against RSV transmission.
B: RSV can still be contagious for several days after symptoms appear, so the child may still be able to spread the virus.
C: While avoiding infants under 6 months can be a good precaution, all children should be protected from exposure to RSV due to its high contagiousness.
A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale
- B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
- C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
- D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee. This is the appropriate action because the client presents with warm, edematous right knee and calf, indicating a potential vascular issue like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Assessing pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee helps evaluate circulation and nerve function, crucial in identifying complications of DVT. Glasgow Coma Scale (A) is used to assess consciousness, not relevant in this case. Assessing proximal pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis (C) may not provide accurate information about circulation distal to the knee. Evaluating the optic nerve (D) using an ophthalmoscope is unrelated to the client's presenting symptoms and medical history.