Nokea
A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the RN finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the RN implement?
- A. Report the client's serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (HCP).
- B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
- C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
- D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention in this situation. Excessive thirst is a common side effect of lithium therapy. Sucking on hard candy can help alleviate the symptom without posing any harm. Reporting the client's serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the symptom of excessive thirst is a known side effect and does not indicate toxicity. No action is needed (Choice C) is incorrect because addressing the client's distress is essential. Telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may cause further distress to the client.
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An RN is providing education to the family of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). The RN should instruct the family to report which symptom immediately?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Weight loss
- C. Constipation
- D. Lightheadedness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells. A sore throat can be an early sign of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of clozapine. The family should report this symptom immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight loss, constipation, and lightheadedness are not typically associated with the serious adverse effect of agranulocytosis related to clozapine therapy.
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
- D. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.
A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. "It may take several weeks to notice improvement."
- B. "You should see immediate effects of the medication."
- C. "You can stop taking the medication once you feel better."
- D. "Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that "It may take several weeks to notice improvement." This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.
A young adult male is hospitalized due to depression and an attempted suicide. The client reports that he lost his job and was angry with his employer for firing him when he took an overdose of pain medications. Which behavior best indicates to the nurse that his condition is improving?
- A. Initiates interactions with other clients.
- B. Describes verbally when he is angry.
- C. Participates in a job search with a social worker.
- D. Denies plans to harm himself or others.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best indicator of improvement in a client with depression is initiating interactions with others. This behavior demonstrates that the client is becoming less withdrawn and more self-directed, showing an improvement in social engagement and coping mechanisms. Choice B, describing anger verbally, may show some progress in emotional expression but does not necessarily indicate overall improvement in depression. Choice C, participating in a job search with a social worker, may be positive but does not directly address social interactions, which are crucial for improving depression. Choice D, denying plans to harm himself or others, is important for safety but does not directly reflect improvement in the client's social functioning or coping skills.
A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which behavior should the nurse prioritize in the care plan?
- A. Self-harming behavior.
- B. Difficulty with interpersonal relationships.
- C. Impulsive spending and substance abuse.
- D. Inconsistent adherence to the treatment regimen.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Self-harming behavior is the priority in the care plan for a client with borderline personality disorder. This behavior poses an immediate risk to the client's safety and requires prompt intervention. Difficulty with interpersonal relationships, impulsive spending, and substance abuse are also common in borderline personality disorder; however, self-harming behavior takes precedence due to its potential for severe harm. Inconsistent adherence to the treatment regimen, though important, is not as urgent as addressing the immediate safety concerns related to self-harm.