Nokea
A male client with HIV on antiretroviral therapy complains of constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the client's glucose level with a glucometer.
- B. Measure the client's weight accurately.
- C. Reassure the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases.
- D. Increase the dose of saquinavir.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to check the client's glucose level with a glucometer. Constant hunger and thirst along with weight loss can be indicative of hyperglycemia, a possible side effect of saquinavir. Monitoring the client's glucose levels is crucial in this situation. Measuring the client's weight accurately (Choice B) is important for monitoring purposes but does not address the immediate concern of hunger, thirst, and weight loss. Reassuring the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases (Choice C) is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms described need immediate attention. Increasing the dose of saquinavir (Choice D) without assessing the client's glucose level can worsen the hyperglycemia.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with Type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and lightheaded. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 60 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- D. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. The first step in treating hypoglycemia is to quickly raise the client's blood sugar level. Fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice are essential for this purpose. Giving a glucagon injection is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take anything by mouth. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for immediate treatment of hypoglycemia. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes is important after administering the fast-acting carbohydrate to ensure that the blood sugar has returned to a safe level.
What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?
- A. Decreased liver enzymes.
- B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
- C. High bilirubin levels.
- D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.
After placing a stethoscope to auscultate S1 and S2 heart sounds, what should the nurse do to check for an S3 heart sound?
- A. Switch to the diaphragm of the stethoscope to hear any abnormal sounds
- B. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope at the same location
- C. Listen at a different location over the aortic area
- D. Switch to the apical area and reassess for S3 sounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To assess for an S3 heart sound, the nurse should listen with the bell of the stethoscope. An S3 heart sound is often low-pitched and best heard with the bell. Choice A is incorrect because switching to the diaphragm is not ideal for detecting low-pitched sounds like an S3. Choice C is incorrect as the S3 heart sound is best heard over the apex of the heart, not the aortic area. Choice D is incorrect because moving to the apical area is appropriate, but the nurse should specifically use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for S3 sounds.
When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?
- A. The client delivered a large baby
- B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
- C. The client had a cesarean delivery
- D. The client had a prolonged labor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.
An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?
- A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
- B. Missed a dose of insulin
- C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
- D. Overexerted during exercise
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.