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A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effects, he stopped taking the medication 6 days ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Anxiety and restlessness
- B. Increased bowel movements
- C. Abdominal cramping
- D. Fever and chills
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety and restlessness. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as anxiety and restlessness. These symptoms indicate a potential serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased bowel movements and abdominal cramping are common side effects of ulcerative colitis and may not warrant immediate intervention. Fever and chills are not typically associated with adrenal insufficiency caused by corticosteroid withdrawal.
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A male client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), an antipsychotic medication, for the management of schizophrenia. Which client history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the first dose of this medication?
- A. History of depression
- B. History of cardiac arrhythmia
- C. History of seizures
- D. History of diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cardiac arrhythmia. Clozapine can lead to severe cardiovascular problems, making it crucial to report any history of cardiac arrhythmia to the healthcare provider before administering the medication. Choices A, C, and D are less concerning in this context as they are not directly associated with potential serious complications related to clozapine use.
The nurse is assessing a female client's blood pressure because she reported feeling dizzy. The blood pressure cuff is inflated to 140 mm Hg and as soon as the cuff is deflated a Korotkoff sound is heard. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?
- A. Wait 1 minute and palpate the systolic pressure before auscultating again.
- B. Increase the inflation pressure by 20 mm Hg and measure again.
- C. Switch to a larger cuff and repeat the measurement.
- D. Document the finding as normal.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If a Korotkoff sound is heard immediately upon deflation, it may indicate an inaccurate reading. Waiting and palpating the systolic pressure can help confirm the accuracy of the measurement. Choice A is the correct intervention because it allows the nurse to ensure the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the inflation pressure is not necessary in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as switching to a larger cuff is not warranted based on the information provided. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the finding as normal without further verification could lead to inaccurate information.
A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
- B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
- C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
- D. Perform a digital rectal examination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.
A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and diplopia. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?
- A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
- B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
- C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
- D. Initiate fall precautions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer thiamine as prescribed. This intervention is a priority for clients with chronic alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious complication of thiamine deficiency. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Initiating fall precautions (choice D) is also important but not the priority compared to administering thiamine to prevent a life-threatening condition.
A client with a postoperative wound that eviscerated yesterday has an elevated temperature. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Initiate contact isolation.
- B. Obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity.
- C. Assess temperature every 4 hours.
- D. Use alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a wound swab for culture and sensitivity is the most important intervention in this situation. It helps identify the presence of infection in the postoperative wound that could be causing the elevated temperature. By obtaining a wound swab, healthcare providers can determine the appropriate treatment needed to address any infection. Initiating contact isolation (Choice A) may be necessary in certain situations but is not the priority in this case. Assessing temperature (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the underlying cause of the elevated temperature. Using alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene (Choice D) is a standard practice for infection control but is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario.