Nokea
A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?
- A. Liver dysfunction
- B. Kidney dysfunction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Androgen therapy can cause liver dysfunction, so liver function tests should be monitored during treatment.
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A physician is noting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?
- A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
- B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
- C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
- D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pulmonary emboli can produce fever, even without infection.
When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, the condition is called
- A. Alloimmunity
- B. Opsonization
- C. Autoimmunity
- D. Hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, it is called autoimmunity.
What action is specific to hormonal contraceptives and should be taught to this woman?
- A. The cervical mucus is made resistant to penetration by sperm.
- B. The release of follicle-stimulating hormone is increased to block fertility.
- C. The maturation of the endometrial lining is activated by the contraceptive.
- D. The pituitary gland increases the synthesis and release of luteinizing hormone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action specific to hormonal contraceptives that should be taught to the woman is that they alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. This mechanism helps in preventing pregnancy by reducing the chances of sperm reaching the egg. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate as hormonal contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation rather than increasing follicle-stimulating hormone release. Choice C is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not activate the maturation of the endometrial lining; instead, they modify it to prevent implantation. Choice D is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate the pituitary gland to increase luteinizing hormone synthesis and release.
On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?
- A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
- B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
- C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
- D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.
A patient is starting on alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
- B. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water, and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption.