Nokea
A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and lack of motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?
- A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
- B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
- C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
- D. Encourage the client to exercise.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this scenario. This intervention helps address psychomotor retardation and enhances motivation and functioning. By structuring the client's day, it can provide a sense of purpose, routine, and accomplishment. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may be helpful but does not directly address the client's overall functioning. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may provide temporary relief but may not address the core symptoms of major depressive disorder. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, can be beneficial, but in this case, addressing the lack of structure and motivation through a daily plan is more appropriate.
You may also like to solve these questions
The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?
- A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
- B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
- C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
- D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.
A client is receiving substitution therapy during withdrawal from benzodiazepines. Which expected outcome statement has the highest priority when planning nursing care?
- A. Excessive CNS stimulation will be reduced.
- B. Co-dependent behaviors will be decreased.
- C. Client's level of consciousness will increase.
- D. Client will not demonstrate cross-addiction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Excessive CNS stimulation will be reduced.' During benzodiazepine withdrawal, the priority is to manage symptoms such as CNS hyperactivity, which can include agitation, anxiety, and seizures. Substitution therapy aims to minimize these withdrawal symptoms by providing a safer alternative to the benzodiazepine. Options B, C, and D are not the highest priority during benzodiazepine withdrawal. Decreasing co-dependent behaviors, increasing the client's level of consciousness, and preventing cross-addiction are important aspects of care but are not as critical as managing the potentially severe CNS stimulation.
A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, "My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!" The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial
- B. Projection
- C. Rationalization
- D. Splitting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own feelings of anger onto his roommate by attributing his anger to the roommate. Projection involves shifting one's feelings, thoughts, or impulses onto another person. Denial (choice A) is the refusal to accept reality, Rationalization (choice C) involves justifying behaviors with logical reasons, and Splitting (choice D) is the inability to integrate positive and negative qualities of oneself or others.
When developing a plan of care for a male client admitted with delirium tremens, who is dehydrated, experiencing auditory hallucinations, has a bruised, swollen tongue, and is confused, what action should the RN include to ensure the client is physiologically stable?
- A. Encourage oral fluids.
- B. Monitor vital signs.
- C. Keep the room dark.
- D. Apply ice to his tongue.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring vital signs is the priority action to ensure the physiological stability of a client with delirium tremens. In this scenario, the client's dehydration, confusion, and other symptoms necessitate close monitoring of vital signs to assess their condition accurately. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice A) is important for hydration but does not directly assess physiological stability. Keeping the room dark (Choice C) may help with hallucinations but is not the primary intervention for physiological stability. Applying ice to the tongue (Choice D) addresses a symptom but is less critical compared to monitoring vital signs in this situation.
Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:
- A. Favorable with medication
- B. In the relapse stage
- C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
- D. To have a less positive outcome
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.