Nokea
A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:
- A. climacteric
- B. menopause
- C. perimenopause
- D. postmenopause
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period during which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. Perimenopause typically lasts around five years. Climacteric is a term that describes the period when physiologic changes result in the cessation of a woman's reproductive ability and decreased sexual activity. This term applies to both genders. Menopause is the time when menstruation permanently stops. Postmenopause refers to the period after menopausal changes are complete. In this scenario, the woman's irregular menses indicate she is likely in the perimenopausal stage, experiencing hormonal fluctuations and changes.
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The goals of palliative care include all of the following except:
- A. giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible
- B. taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul
- C. no interventions are needed because the client is near death
- D. supporting the needs of the family and client
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The goals of palliative care include choices A, B, and D. Choice C, 'no interventions are needed because the client is near death,' is not part of palliative care. Palliative care involves giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible, taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul, and supporting the needs of the family and client. Interventions are crucial in palliative care to ensure the comfort and well-being of the client until the end of life. Therefore, the correct answer is that no interventions are needed because the client is near death.
During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, what is the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents?
- A. the potential hazards of accidents
- B. appropriate nutrition now that the child has been weaned from breastfeeding
- C. toilet training
- D. how to purchase appropriate shoes now that the child is walking
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents is the potential hazards of accidents. Accidents are the primary source of injury in children and can be life-threatening. Discussions about appropriate nutrition should have been addressed during the weaning process, while the purchase of appropriate shoes is important but not life-threatening. Toilet training typically begins around 2 years of age, so 1 year of age is too early to discuss it. Therefore, the focus should be on educating parents about accident prevention to ensure the child's safety and well-being.
When administering a nasal spray medication, what should the client do before the medication is administered?
- A. The client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered.
- B. The medication should be sprayed into the nostril.
- C. The medication should be administered as the client inhales.
- D. The client should sit upright when the medication is administered.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered. This step helps clear the nasal passages, ensuring that the medication can reach its intended target. Choice B is incorrect as the nasal spray should be directed into the nostril, not just in front of the nose. Administering the medication as the client inhales (Choice C) is crucial to ensure proper delivery, as it helps the medication reach the desired areas. Choice D is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright, not lying flat, when administering nasal spray medication to allow for better absorption and prevent the medication from flowing out.
When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
- B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
- C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
- D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.
A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:
- A. sprain.
- B. strain.
- C. subluxation.
- D. dislocation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.