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A mode of pressure-targeted ventilation that provides posiatbivirbe. cporme/tsessut re to decrease the workload of spontaneous breathing through what action by the endotracheal tube?
- A. Continuous positive airway pressure
- B. Positive end-expiratory pressure
- C. Pressure support ventilation
- D. T-piece adapter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure support ventilation. This mode delivers a set pressure to support each spontaneous breath, decreasing the workload of breathing. Pressure support ventilation assists the patient's inspiratory efforts without providing a set tidal volume like in volume-targeted ventilation. Continuous positive airway pressure (Choice A) maintains a constant level of positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle but does not actively support spontaneous breathing efforts. Positive end-expiratory pressure (Choice B) maintains positive pressure at the end of expiration to prevent alveolar collapse but does not directly support spontaneous breathing. T-piece adapter (Choice D) is a weaning device that allows the patient to breathe spontaneously without ventilatory support.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory dist ress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The primary care provider (PCP) orders a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and aabnirba.lcgoems/tieas,t the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the PCP of this assessment and anticipates what order?
- A. Continuous lateral rotation therapy
- B. Guided imagery
- C. Neuromuscular blockade
- D. Prone positioning
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neuromuscular blockade.
1. Neuromuscular blockade helps to achieve optimal ventilator synchrony by reducing patient-ventilator asynchrony and improving oxygenation in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
2. Despite sedation, the patient's restlessness and discomfort suggest inadequate ventilator synchrony, which can be addressed by neuromuscular blockade.
3. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (A) and prone positioning (D) are interventions for improving ventilation and oxygenation in ARDS but do not directly address patient-ventilator synchrony.
4. Guided imagery (B) is a non-pharmacological technique for relaxation and pain management, which may not address the underlying issue of ventilator synchrony in this case.
To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to:
- A. Auscultate for the presence of bilateral breath sounds.
- B. Obtain a portable chest x-ray to check tube placement.
- C. Observe the chest for symmetric chest movement with ventilation.
- D. Use an end-tidal CO2 monitor to check for placement in the trachea.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea. This method detects exhaled CO2, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. It is a quick and efficient way to confirm placement without delay, reducing the risk of complications.
A: Auscultating for bilateral breath sounds is not as reliable because breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is misplaced.
B: Obtaining a portable chest x-ray is not the best initial action as it takes time and delays confirming tube placement.
C: Observing chest movement may not provide conclusive evidence of proper tube placement and can lead to misinterpretation.
In summary, using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most accurate and efficient method to verify correct endotracheal tube placement compared to the other options.
The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who is experiencing pain that is continuous and severe. How should the nurse schedule the administration of opioid pain medications?
- A. Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics.
- B. Provide PRN doses of medication whenever the patient requests.
- C. Offer enough pain medication to keep the patient sedated.
- D. Suggest analgesic doses that provide pain control without decreasing respiratory rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics. This is the best approach for managing continuous and severe pain in a terminally ill patient. By providing scheduled doses of opioid pain medications, the nurse ensures a consistent level of pain relief, preventing peaks and troughs in pain control. This approach also helps in preventing the patient from experiencing unnecessary suffering.
Choice B (PRN doses) may lead to inadequate pain control as the patient may wait too long before requesting medication. Choice C (keeping the patient sedated) is not appropriate as the goal is pain management, not sedation. Choice D (balancing pain control and respiratory rate) is important, but the priority should be on effectively managing the pain first.
A patient with respiratory failure has arterial pressure-based cardiac output (APCO) monitoring and is receiving mechanical ventilation with peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 12 cm H2O. Which information indicates that a change in the ventilator settings may be required?
- A. The arterial pressure is 90/46.
- B. The heart rate is 58 beats/minute.
- C. The stroke volume is increased.
- D. The stroke volume variation is 12%.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A decrease in the arterial pressure (hypotension) with a low diastolic pressure (46 mmHg) may indicate inadequate perfusion, possibly due to inadequate cardiac output from the mechanical ventilation. This suggests that a change in ventilator settings may be required to improve oxygenation and perfusion.
Option B is incorrect because a heart rate of 58 beats/minute alone does not provide direct information on the patient's hemodynamic status. Option C is incorrect as an increased stroke volume would usually be a positive indicator; it does not necessarily indicate a need for changing the ventilator settings. Option D is incorrect as a stroke volume variation of 12% is within normal limits and does not necessarily require a change in ventilator settings.
In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,
- A. it is not possible to determine the GFR.
- B. the BUN may be used to determine renal function.
- C. an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio can be used.
- D. a standardized formula may be used to calculate GFR.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because when a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate GFR. The Cockcroft-Gault equation or the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are commonly used formulas to estimate GFR based on serum creatinine levels, age, gender, and race. These formulas provide a reasonable estimation of kidney function in the absence of a 24-hour urine collection.
Choice A is incorrect because there are alternative methods available to estimate GFR. Choice B is incorrect because BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function. Choice C is incorrect because an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as hydration status or liver function.