Fluid Maintenance Pediatrics Practice Questions

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A mother asks the nurse what would be the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis is improving. What is the nurse's best response?

  • A. Blood pressure will stabilize.
  • B. The child will have more energy.
  • C. Urine will be free of protein.
  • D. Urinary output will increase.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the kidneys are inflamed and not functioning properly, leading to a decrease in urinary output. As the condition improves, the kidneys are able to filter and excrete waste products more effectively, resulting in an increase in urinary output. This is the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis is improving because it shows that the kidneys are starting to function better. Blood pressure stabilization, increased energy, and absence of protein in the urine may also be positive signs of improvement, but an increase in urinary output is the most direct and specific indicator of improved kidney function in this context.

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gauge needle for drawing up medication and injecting it

  • A. Inject the medication in the upper arm muscle
  • B. Use a 1 inch needle to administer the medication
  • C. Use the Z track technique to administer the medication
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Using a 1 inch needle is the appropriate gauge needle for drawing up medication and injecting it. The length of the needle is important to ensure that the medication reaches the intended target area and is administered effectively. Shorter needles may not penetrate deep enough, while longer needles may increase the risk of complications such as injecting the medication into the wrong tissue or causing discomfort to the patient. Therefore, using a 1 inch needle is the correct choice for administering medication safely and accurately.

A nurse is planning to use an interpreter during a health history interview of a non-English speaking patient and family. Which nursing care guidelines should the nurse include when using an interpreter? (Select all that apply.)

  • A. Elicit one answer at a time.
  • B. Interrupt the interpreter if the response from the family is lengthy.
  • C. Comments to the interpreter about the family should be made in English.
  • D. Arrange for the family to speak with the same interpreter, if possible.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Elicit one answer at a time: By eliciting one answer at a time, the nurse can ensure clarity in communication and prevent confusion or information overload for both the patient and interpreter.

A client with a history of cardiac dysrhythmias is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of dehydration. The nurse should anticipate that the physician will order;

  • A. A glass of water every hour until hydrated
  • B. Small frequent intake of juices, broth, or milk
  • C. Short-term NG replacement of fluids and nutrients
  • D. A rapid IV infusion of an electrolyte and glucose solution
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A client with a history of cardiac dysrhythmias and dehydration requires careful monitoring and management of fluid and electrolyte balance. The most appropriate intervention for rapid correction of dehydration in this scenario is a rapid IV infusion of an electrolyte and glucose solution. This method allows for the quick replacement of fluids and essential electrolytes to restore the client's hydration status efficiently and effectively. Administering fluids orally may not be adequate in this situation, and NG replacement of fluids and nutrients may not be necessary if the client's condition can be managed through IV therapy. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate choice for this client.

The basic principle of healthy sleep hygiene which is NOT included is

  • A. set routine
  • B. avoid stimulating activities as playing computer games
  • C. makes sure child spends time outside every day
  • D. gives a heavy meal within an hour of bedtime
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Heavy meals close to bedtime disrupt sleep.

Poor prognostic factors in Hodgkin lymphoma include all the following EXCEPT

  • A. age of more than 15 year at the time of diagnosis
  • B. stage IV disease
  • C. manifested by positron emission tomography (PET) scan positivity
  • D. poor response to therapy
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Older age is generally considered a poor prognostic factor, but not necessarily worse than other listed options.

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