The nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks gestation. Which assessment requires further intervention?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 and hematocrit 33
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80
- C. Patient has slight pedal swelling
- D. Urine dipstick for protein 3+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick showing protein of 3+ indicates significant proteinuria, a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby, such as eclampsia and fetal growth restriction. The nurse should further assess the client's blood pressure, perform additional tests for preeclampsia, and closely monitor the client's condition.
Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are within normal range for pregnancy and do not require immediate intervention.
Choice B: Blood pressure of 130/80 is slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age. Close monitoring is recommended.
Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy due to fluid retention and usually does not indicate a serious issue.
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The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia. Which assessments will be of the highest priority?
- A. Assessing lung sounds
- B. Assessing blood sugar level
- C. Encouraging fluid intake
- D. Assessing for pitting edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing lung sounds. This is of highest priority because magnesium sulfate can lead to respiratory depression. Assessing lung sounds helps monitor for signs of respiratory distress, such as decreased breath sounds or crackles. Assessing blood sugar level (B) is important but not as urgent as respiratory status. Encouraging fluid intake (C) is important for hydration but not as critical as respiratory assessment. Assessing for pitting edema (D) is relevant for monitoring fluid retention but not as immediate as assessing lung sounds for respiratory compromise.
A nurse is monitoring a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her blood work reveals a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. The nurse knows this blood work indicates which of the following?
- A. A normal value indicating that the client is managing blood glucose control well
- B. A low value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- C. A high value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- D. The value does not offer information regarding client management of her disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.
2. A value of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control.
3. High HbA1c (above 6.5-7%) signifies uncontrolled diabetes.
4. Choice C is correct as it aligns with the interpretation of HbA1c.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as 10% is not a normal HbA1c value.
- Choice B is incorrect as a low value would indicate good control.
- Choice D is incorrect as HbA1c is a key marker for diabetes management.
The doctor suspects that the client is in preterm labor. Which symptom is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Severe pain in the lower quadrant
- B. Severe pain and hard abdomen to palpation
- C. Painless vaginal bleeding
- D. Abdominal cramping and lower back pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abdominal cramping and lower back pain. These symptoms are typical of preterm labor due to the contractions of the uterus. Lower back pain is a common sign of labor, and abdominal cramping is indicative of uterine contractions. Severe pain in the lower quadrant (A) is more consistent with issues like appendicitis. Severe pain and hard abdomen (B) may indicate a more serious condition like placental abruption. Painless vaginal bleeding (C) is more characteristic of conditions like placenta previa. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate in the context of suspected preterm labor.
The nurse is caring for a client in labor who is HIV positive. Which nursing care should be included?
- A. Administering antiretroviral drugs as ordered
- B. Assisting the woman on a labor ball to help with natural descent of the fetus
- C. Handling the newborn with gloves until it receives its first bath
- D. Encouraging the mother to breastfeed soon after delivery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because administering antiretroviral drugs as ordered helps reduce the risk of vertical transmission of HIV from mother to baby during childbirth. This treatment is essential in managing the client's HIV status and ensuring the safety of the newborn.
Choice B is incorrect because using a labor ball does not directly address the HIV status of the client or the transmission risk to the newborn.
Choice C is incorrect as wearing gloves when handling the newborn does not replace the need for antiretroviral therapy to prevent transmission.
Choice D is incorrect because breastfeeding can transmit HIV from mother to baby, so it is not recommended for HIV-positive mothers to breastfeed.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 28-year-old client who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy. Which should the discharge instructions include?
- A. Make sure to take folic acid
- B. Make an appointment to see her provider in 6 weeks
- C. Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours
- D. Resume all activity in 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours. Methotrexate is excreted in urine and can be harmful if it comes into contact with others. Flushing the toilet twice helps to minimize the risk of exposure to others. Choice A is incorrect because although folic acid supplementation may be necessary with methotrexate, it is not the priority in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as the client should be advised to seek immediate medical attention if any concerning symptoms occur, rather than waiting for 6 weeks. Choice D is incorrect as the client needs to avoid certain activities for a period of time after receiving methotrexate to prevent complications.