Nokea
A narcotic analgesic is ordered for postoperative pain. Why are narcotics given in low doses to the laryngectomy patient?
- A. They depress the respiratory rate and cough reflex.
- B. They increase respiratory tract secretions.
- C. They have a tendency to cause stomal edema.
- D. They can cause addiction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because narcotics in high doses can depress the respiratory rate and cough reflex, which can be especially dangerous for a laryngectomy patient due to the risk of airway compromise. Low doses can provide pain relief without significant respiratory depression. Choices B and C are incorrect because narcotics typically do not increase respiratory tract secretions or cause stomal edema. Choice D is incorrect because while narcotics can potentially cause addiction, this is not the primary reason for giving low doses to laryngectomy patients.
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When monitoring for hypernatremia, the nurse should assess the client for:
- A. Dry skin
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Confusion
- D. Pale coloring
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Confusion. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by high sodium levels in the blood. Confusion is a common symptom as high sodium levels can affect brain function. Dry skin (A) is more indicative of dehydration, tachycardia (B) is a symptom of various conditions, and pale coloring (D) is not specific to hypernatremia. Confusion is a key indicator that the nurse should assess for when monitoring for hypernatremia.
If Mr. Franco’s Right side is weak, What should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse?
- A. Expressive aphasia is prominent on clients with right sided weakness
- B. The affected lobe in the patient is the Right lobe
- C. The client will have problems in judging distance and proprioception
- D. Clients orientation to time and space will be much affected NEUROLOGIC NURSING Situation: A computer analyst, Mr. Ricardo J. Santos, 25 was brought to the hospital for diagnostic workup after he had experienced seizure in his office.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the right side weakness indicates a lesion in the left hemisphere of the brain. The brain's motor functions are contralaterally controlled, meaning the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body. Therefore, a right-sided weakness suggests a lesion in the left hemisphere. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left hemisphere lesions, judgment of distance and proprioception are more related to parietal lobe lesions, and orientation to time and space is not directly linked to right-sided weakness.
Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?
- A. Excessive sodium intake
- B. Deficient potassium intake
- C. A pituitary adenoma
- D. An adrenal adenoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An adrenal adenoma. Adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn's syndrome. Adrenal adenomas are benign tumors that cause overproduction of aldosterone, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion. This results in hypertension and hypokalemia. Excessive sodium intake (A) and deficient potassium intake (B) are not direct causes of hyperaldosteronism. A pituitary adenoma (C) is associated with other hormone imbalances, such as Cushing's syndrome or acromegaly, but not hyperaldosteronism.
Which action indicates the nurse is using a PICOT question to improve care for a patient?
- A. Practices nursing based on the evidence presented in court
- B. Implements interventions based on scientific research
- C. Uses standardized care plans for all patients. NursingStoreRN
- D. Plans care based on tradition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using a PICOT question involves formulating a research question to guide evidence-based practice. B indicates the nurse is implementing interventions based on scientific research, aligning with the PICOT framework (Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, Timeframe). This approach ensures that care decisions are supported by the best available evidence, leading to improved patient outcomes.
Choice A is incorrect because practicing nursing based on court evidence does not align with the PICOT framework. Choice C is incorrect as using standardized care plans for all patients may not consider individual patient needs and preferences as required in a PICOT question. Choice D is incorrect as planning care based on tradition does not involve integrating current research evidence as in the PICOT approach.
The nurse administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at 7am. At what time would the nurse expect the client to be at most risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
- A. 10:00 AM
- B. 4:00 PM
- C. Noon
- D. 10:00 PM
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. NPH insulin peaks in 4-12 hours, making 4:00 PM the highest risk time.
2. 10:00 AM is too soon for peak effect.
3. Noon is too early for peak effect.
4. 10:00 PM is too late for peak effect.
In summary, B is correct as it aligns with NPH insulin peak time, while other options are too early or too late.