Nclex Questions Management of Care

Nclex Questions Management of Care Related

Review Nclex Questions Management of Care related questions and content

A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?

  • A. The immune system of an infant is immature, and the infant is at risk for infection.
  • B. The transfer of your antibodies protects your infant until the infant is 12 months old.
  • C. Yes, your infant is protected from all infections.
  • D. If you breastfeed, your infant is protected from infection.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.

You may also like to solve these questions

The nurse is educating a teenage female about preventing the transmission of genital herpes. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

  • A. "Do not sit on toilet seats without protection."?
  • B. "Oral sex can transmit the virus."?
  • C. "This infection can be transmitted via intercourse even when you do not feel ill."?
  • D. "Try to drink plenty of fluids after sex to flush the reproductive tract."?
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Genital herpes can be transmitted through oral, genital, and anal sex. It is crucial to educate the patient that the infection can be transmitted via intercourse even when asymptomatic to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as sitting on toilet seats without protection does not transmit genital herpes. Choice B is incorrect because oral sex can transmit the virus. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking fluids after sex does not prevent the transmission of genital herpes.

Which of the following tests is commonly performed on newborns with jaundice?

  • A. blood urea nitrogen
  • B. magnesium
  • C. bilirubin
  • D. prolactin
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: bilirubin. A high bilirubin level is found in newborns with hepatic immaturity, leading to jaundice. Testing bilirubin levels is crucial in diagnosing and monitoring jaundice in newborns. Choices A, B, and D (blood urea nitrogen, magnesium, and prolactin) are not commonly performed tests for evaluating jaundice in newborns. Blood urea nitrogen is a measure of kidney function, magnesium levels are usually checked in metabolic disorders, and prolactin is a hormone related to lactation, none of which are directly relevant to assessing jaundice in newborns.

A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:

  • A. specific.
  • B. sensitive.
  • C. negative culture
  • D. marginal finding.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' Specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, when the client's lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, a specific test would correctly identify that the client does not have the disease. 'Sensitive' (Choice B) is incorrect as sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (Choice C) is incorrect as it does not describe the test's ability but rather the result itself. 'Marginal finding' (Choice D) is irrelevant to the concept being tested in this question.

Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

  • A. LDH
  • B. troponin
  • C. CPK
  • D. SGOT
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

What is the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow?

  • A. Nothing by mouth
  • B. Nasogastric feedings
  • C. Clear liquids
  • D. Total parenteral nutrition
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric feedings are the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow. Providing nothing by mouth can lead to nutritional deficiencies, while clear liquids might cause aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is not necessary if the gastrointestinal tract is functional. Nasogastric feedings are preferred as they can safely provide nutrition without the risks associated with not eating or aspirating.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.