Nokea
A new nurse asks the preceptor to describe the primary purpose of evaluation. Which statement made by the nursing preceptor is most accurate?
- A. “An evaluation helps you determine whether all nursing interventions were completed.”
- B. “During evaluation, you determine when to downsize staffing on nursing units.”
- C. “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.”
- D. “Evaluation eliminates unnecessary paperwork and care planning.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care.
Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.
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Which neurotransmitter mediates the sympathetic response?
- A. Norepinephrine
- B. Prostaglandin
- C. Acetylcholine
- D. Serotonin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter that mediates the sympathetic response. It is released by sympathetic nerve endings and acts on adrenergic receptors in various target organs to initiate the "fight or flight" response. Prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and serotonin do not directly mediate the sympathetic response and are involved in different physiological processes.
Why should the nurse monitor angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors cautiously in clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults?
- A. A sudden raise in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose
- B. A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose
- C. A sudden drop in body temperature may occur during the first 1-3hours after the initial dose
- D. A sudden rise in pulse rate may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dosage CARING WITH CLIENTS WITH CEREBROVASCULAR DISORDER
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can cause vasodilation, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. In clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults, these medications may not be cleared from the body as efficiently, increasing the risk of hypotension. Monitoring is crucial to prevent complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: A sudden raise in BP is unlikely with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.
C: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors do not affect body temperature.
D: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors typically do not cause a sudden rise in pulse rate.
In summary, monitoring for a potential drop in blood pressure is essential in vulnerable populations when using angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.
A nurse is formulating a diagnosis for a client who is reliving a brutal mugging that took place several months ago. The client is crying uncontrollably and states that he 'can’t live with this fear.' Which of the following diagnoses for this client is correctly written?
- A. Post-trauma syndrome related to being attacked
- B. Psychological overreaction related to being attacked
- C. Needs assistance coping with attack
- D. Mental distress related to being attacked
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Post-trauma syndrome related to being attacked. This diagnosis accurately reflects the client's symptoms of reliving the traumatic event, crying uncontrollably, and expressing fear. "Post-trauma syndrome" encompasses the psychological and emotional distress following a traumatic event.
Choice B: Psychological overreaction simplifies the client's experience and does not capture the severity or ongoing nature of the trauma symptoms.
Choice C: Needs assistance coping with attack is vague and does not provide a specific diagnosis or acknowledge the clinical presentation of the client.
Choice D: Mental distress related to being attacked is too broad and does not specify the specific syndrome or symptoms experienced by the client.
The nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus how to treat adverse reactions to insulin. To reverse a hypoglycemic reaction, the client ideally should ingest an oral carbohydrate. However, this treatment isn’t always a possible or safe. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to keep which alternate treatment on hand?
- A. Epinephrine
- B. 50% dextrose
- C. Glucagon
- D. Hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucagon. In a hypoglycemic reaction, glucagon can be administered to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Glucagon works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. This is crucial in emergencies when oral carbohydrates are not feasible. Epinephrine (A) is used for severe allergic reactions, not hypoglycemia. 50% dextrose (B) is an oral carbohydrate used for hypoglycemia but is not always practical. Hydrocortisone (D) is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions, not for hypoglycemic emergencies.
A nurse caring for a client admitted to the intensive care unit with a stroke assesses the client’s vital signs, pupils, and orientation every few minutes. The nurse is performing which type of assessment?
- A. Initial assessment
- B. Focused assessment
- C. Time-lapsed reassessment
- D. Emergency assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is continuously monitoring specific aspects such as vital signs, pupils, and orientation at regular intervals, which is characteristic of a focused assessment. This type of assessment allows the nurse to gather specific data related to the client's condition and respond promptly to any changes.
A: Initial assessment is conducted upon admission to establish baseline data.
C: Time-lapsed reassessment involves comparing current data to previous assessments over a longer period.
D: Emergency assessment is performed in urgent situations to quickly identify life-threatening issues.
By systematically assessing the client's vital signs, pupils, and orientation at frequent intervals, the nurse can provide timely and appropriate care in the intensive care unit setting.