Maternity HESI Practice Questions

Maternity HESI Practice Questions Related

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A newborn is 24 hours old, and a healthcare provider is caring for them. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?

  • A. Hgb 20 g/dL
  • B. Bilirubin 2 mg/dL
  • C. Platelets 200,000/mm3
  • D. WBC count 32,000/mm3
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: WBC count 32,000/mm3. A WBC count of 32,000/mm3 is significantly elevated in a newborn and could indicate an infection, which needs immediate attention and intervention. High white blood cell counts in newborns can be concerning as they may suggest an ongoing infection or other underlying issues that require prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and would not typically warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Hgb levels of 20 g/dL (Choice A) are high for newborns, but this is not as concerning as a significantly elevated WBC count. Bilirubin levels of 2 mg/dL (Choice B) are within normal limits for a newborn and do not indicate immediate issues. Platelet count of 200,000/mm3 (Choice C) is also within the normal range for a newborn and would not require immediate reporting.

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A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

  • A. Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
  • B. Urine output 100 mL in 1 hr
  • C. Pulse 58/min
  • D. Respiratory rate 14/min
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylergonovine can increase blood pressure, so it should be withheld if the client has hypertension. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mm Hg indicates hypertension and is a contraindication for administering methylergonovine. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and not contraindications for administering this medication. Urine output, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are not factors that determine the appropriateness of administering methylergonovine in this situation.

A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is receiving teaching about expected changes during pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

  • A. Your stomach will empty rapidly
  • B. You should expect your uterus to double in size
  • C. You should anticipate nasal stuffiness
  • D. Your nipples will become lighter in color
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nasal stuffiness is a common symptom during pregnancy due to increased blood flow and hormonal changes. This symptom is caused by the increased blood volume and hormonal changes that lead to swelling of the nasal passages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stomach emptying rate does not significantly change during pregnancy; the uterus does not double in size at 24 weeks but rather grows steadily, and nipples typically darken in color due to increased pigmentation.

The healthcare provider prescribes 10 units per liter of oxytocin via IV drip to augment a client's labor because she is experiencing a prolonged active phase. Which finding would cause the nurse to immediately discontinue the oxytocin?

  • A. Contraction duration of 100 seconds.
  • B. Four contractions in 10 minutes.
  • C. Uterus is soft.
  • D. Early deceleration of fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds is too long and can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and other complications. This prolonged contraction duration suggests that the uterus is not relaxing adequately between contractions, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Choice B, 'Four contractions in 10 minutes,' is a sign of tachysystole, which is concerning but not as immediately critical as the prolonged contraction duration. Choice C, 'Uterus is soft,' is not a reason to discontinue oxytocin; in fact, it is a normal finding. Choice D, 'Early deceleration of fetal heart rate,' while indicating fetal distress, is not a direct result of the oxytocin and may require intervention but not immediate discontinuation of the medication.

Are sperm much larger than ova?

  • A. TRUE
  • B. FALSE
  • C. Sometimes
  • D. Always
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Ova, also known as eggs, are actually the largest cells in the human body, while sperm are significantly smaller. This size difference is due to the different functions of the two gametes. Sperm are specialized for motility to reach and fertilize the egg, while ova contain nutrients and cellular machinery needed for fertilization and early embryonic development. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sperm are not larger than ova; they are much smaller in size.

At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

  • A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
  • B. Recalculation of gestational age
  • C. Evaluation of fetal growth
  • D. Determination of fetal presentation
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

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