A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?
- A. Pain related to periosteal injury
- B. Impaired mobility related to bleeding
- C. Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit
- D. Injury related to intracranial hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis to guide the plan of care for a newborn with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position is 'Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit.' This is appropriate because the parents may be worried about the appearance and potential complications of the cephalic hematoma. They may require education and reassurance from the nurse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the emotional needs of the parents and the knowledge deficit they may have regarding the condition.
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In evaluating your client's level of wellness, which of the following indicators can you see?
- A. Appropriate nutritional level
- B. Sense of personal security
- C. Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations
- D. Maladaptations to one's environment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When evaluating a client's level of wellness, indicators such as appropriate nutritional level, sense of personal security, and acceptance of oneself and one's limitations are crucial. Option C, 'Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations,' directly relates to mental wellness and self-awareness, making it a key indicator of overall well-being. Options A, B, and D are not as directly tied to the psychological and emotional aspects of wellness, making them less relevant indicators in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
The community health nurse is planning a series of educational courses about the healthcare system and meeting healthcare needs for the community center. Which adjunct issue should the nurse address for a group of older adults?
- A. Peer concerns.
- B. Adult daycare.
- C. Retirement issues.
- D. Vocational concerns.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When planning educational courses for older adults, addressing adult daycare is crucial as it is a relevant issue that can impact their daily lives and access to healthcare services. Peer concerns may not be directly related to healthcare needs, retirement issues are important but not as immediate in terms of healthcare access, and vocational concerns are more pertinent to working-age individuals.
The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?
- A. Binge eating disorder
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia
- D. Purge syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.
As a supervisor, you plan to conduct a seminar in response to the midwife's training need for skills in community diagnosis. Which is an appropriate method to use to enable midwives to apply the knowledge they will gain in actual practice?
- A. lecture
- B. problem-solving
- C. group discussion
- D. nominal group technique
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Problem-solving is an effective method to enable midwives to apply the knowledge gained in actual practice. By engaging in problem-solving activities during the seminar, midwives can enhance their critical thinking skills and directly apply the information to real-life scenarios they may encounter in community diagnosis.
Choice A (lecture) is less effective as it primarily involves passive listening and may not provide the hands-on experience needed for practical application. Choice C (group discussion) can be helpful for sharing perspectives but may not directly translate to practical application as problem-solving would. Choice D (nominal group technique) focuses more on generating ideas and reaching consensus rather than hands-on application of knowledge.
During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?
- A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
- B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
- C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
- D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.
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