Nokea
A newborn's mother is positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen. Which of the following should the infant receive?
- A. Hepatitis B immune globulin at 1 week followed by hepatitis B vaccine monthly for 6 months
- B. Hepatitis B vaccine monthly until the newborn tests negative for the hepatitis B surface antigen
- C. Hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hr of birth
- D. Hepatitis B vaccine at 24 hr followed by hepatitis B immune globulin every 12 hr for 3 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario where a newborn's mother is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen, the infant should receive both hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. This is crucial to provide passive and active immunity against the Hepatitis B virus. Hepatitis B immune globulin provides immediate protection by giving passive immunity, while the vaccine stimulates active immunity in the infant. Administering both within 12 hours of birth is important to prevent vertical transmission of the virus.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Saturated perineal pad in 30 minutes
- B. Deep tendon reflexes 4+
- C. Fundus at the level of the umbilicus
- D. Approximated edges of episiotomy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client who is 4 hours postpartum, a saturated perineal pad within 30 minutes is a priority finding as it may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Deep tendon reflexes being 4+ is within normal limits postpartum. The fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding at this time frame, indicating proper involution of the uterus. Approximated edges of an episiotomy suggest proper healing.
A client is being assessed for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?
- A. Localized area of breast tenderness
- B. Pelvic pain
- C. Vaginal discharge with foul odor
- D. Hematuria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic pain is a common symptom of endometritis, which is an infection of the uterine lining. It is an important finding that warrants further evaluation. Localized area of breast tenderness may indicate mastitis, vaginal discharge with a foul odor could suggest a vaginal infection, and hematuria points towards a urinary tract issue, but they are not specific to endometritis.
A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client's lower extremities.
- B. Massage the client's posterior lower legs.
- C. Place pillows under the client's knees when resting in bed.
- D. Have the client ambulate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.
A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
- B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
- C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
- D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.