Nokea
A newly graduated nurse is admitting a patient with a long history of emphysema. The new nurses preceptor is going over the patients past lab reports with the new nurse. The nurse takes note that the patients PaCO2 has been between 56 and 64 mm Hg for several months. The preceptor asks the new nurse why they will be cautious administering oxygen. What is the new nurses best response?
- A. The patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation.
- B. Oxygen will increase the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion.
- C. Oxygen may cause the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic.
- D. Using oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When PaCO2 chronically exceeds 50 mm Hg, it creates insensitivity to CO2 in the respiratory medulla, and the use of oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia. No information indicates the patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation. No feedback system that oxygen stimulates would create an increase in the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion. Increasing the oxygen would not stimulate the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic; rather, it would cause hypoventilation and acidosis.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patients most recent laboratory results show a slight decrease in potassium. The physician has opted to forego drug therapy but has suggested increasing the patients dietary intake of potassium. Which of the following would be a good source of potassium?
- A. Apples
- B. Asparagus
- C. Carrots
- D. Bananas
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium. Apples, carrots, and asparagus are not high in potassium.
A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
- A. The man urinated prior to his arrival to the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
- B. The man likely has a traumatic brain injury, lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and needs vasopressin.
- C. The man is experiencing symptoms of heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide that results in decreased urine output.
- D. The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely causing the lower urine output. The man urinating prior to his arrival to the ED is unlikely; the fall and hip injury would make his ability to urinate difficult. No assessment information indicates he has a head injury or heart failure.
A patient who is being treated for pneumonia starts complaining of sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3=24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is below 7.40, PaCO2 is greater than 40, and the HCO3 is normal; therefore, it is a respiratory acidosis, and compensation by the kidneys has not begun, which indicates this was probably an acute event. The HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range so it is not metabolic alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates an acidosis, not alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates it is an acidosis but the HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis.
A patient has questioned the nurses administration of IV normal saline, asking whether sterile water would be a more appropriate choice than saltwater. Under what circumstances would the nurse administer electrolyte-free water intravenously?
- A. Never, because it rapidly enters red blood cells, causing them to rupture.
- B. When the patient is severely dehydrated resulting in neurologic signs and symptoms
- C. When the patient is in excess of calcium and/or magnesium ions
- D. When a patient's fluid volume deficit is due to acute fluid or chronic renal failure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: IV solutions contain dextrose or electrolytes mixed in various proportions with water. Pure, electrolyte-free water can never be administered IV because it rapidly enters red blood cells and causes them to rupture.
You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?
- A. Air emboli
- B. Phlebitis
- C. Infiltration
- D. Fluid overload
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue. This can occur when the IV cannula dislodges or perforates the wall of the vein. Infiltration is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid from the insertion site, discomfort and coolness in the area of infiltration, and a significant decrease in the flow rate. Air emboli, phlebitis, and fluid overload are not indications of infiltration.