Nokea
A novice nurse notices a patient is pacing the floor and twisting his hands. When the nurse enters the room, the patient stares at her and mumbles, "Can't anyone understand what I want?" while smiling and reaching out to shake the nurse's hand. The nurse recognizes a risk for violence based on which clinical findings? (select all that apply)
- A. Glaring at the nurse
- B. Nervousness, twisting of hands
- C. Murmuring when talking
- D. Diagnosis of a terminal illness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because glaring at the nurse indicates potential aggression and hostility, which are red flags for violence risk. Glaring can be a non-verbal sign of anger or frustration, signaling a potential escalation. In contrast, nervousness and twisting of hands (choice B) may indicate anxiety or distress but not necessarily violence. Murmuring when talking (choice C) may suggest communication difficulties but does not directly indicate violence risk. Lastly, a diagnosis of a terminal illness (choice D) is not directly related to the immediate risk of violence in this scenario.
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It is important for nurses to know the functions of the branches of the federal government. At a local meeting of the state nurses' association, an officer reminds members that the branch that is capable of originating major policy initiatives is thebranch.
- A. executive
- B. legislative
- C. judicial
- D. administrative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: legislative. The legislative branch, which consists of Congress, is responsible for creating and enacting laws, including major policy initiatives. This branch has the power to propose, debate, and pass legislation that shapes public policy. The executive branch (choice A) enforces laws, the judicial branch (choice C) interprets laws, and the administrative branch (choice D) oversees the implementation of laws. In this context, the legislative branch is the primary entity for originating major policy initiatives, making it crucial for nurses to understand its functions.
In the triad of health care, which would be considered the third-party payer?
- A. Client
- B. Health care provider
- C. Insurance company
- D. Government agency that sets reimbursement rules for services
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insurance company. In the triad of health care, the third-party payer refers to an entity outside of the patient and health care provider that pays for the health care services. Insurance companies typically serve as third-party payers by covering a portion or all of the costs associated with medical treatments. The other choices (A, B, D) are not considered third-party payers in this context. Choice A refers to the client/patient receiving the health care services, choice B refers to the health care provider delivering the services, and choice D refers to a government agency that sets reimbursement rules but does not directly pay for the services rendered.
The nurse manager determines that four RNs, five LPN/LVNs, and two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are required per shift to meet the needs of the patient population on the unit, according to acuity and census. The nurse manager is concerned with:
- A. assignments.
- B. staffing.
- C. output.
- D. productivity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: staffing. The nurse manager's concern is related to ensuring adequate numbers of RNs, LPN/LVNs, and UAPs per shift to meet patient needs. Staffing refers to the appropriate allocation of personnel to provide safe and effective care. Assignments (A) are specific tasks given to staff, output (C) is the end result of a process, and productivity (D) is efficiency in completing tasks - these are not the primary focus of the nurse manager's concern in this scenario. Staffing directly addresses the crucial aspect of having the right mix and number of staff members to deliver quality care.
All hospitals receiving Medicare and Medicaid funds must ask clients whether they have a living will or a durable power of attorney. This act is known as the:
- A. Emergency Treatment and Active Labor Law.
- B. Americans with Disabilities Act.
- C. Uniform Health Care Decisions Act.
- D. doctrine of res ipsa loquitur.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Uniform Health Care Decisions Act. This act mandates hospitals to inquire if clients have a living will or durable power of attorney to ensure patients' healthcare wishes are honored. A: Emergency Treatment and Active Labor Law pertains to emergency care. B: Americans with Disabilities Act focuses on discrimination against individuals with disabilities. D: Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur involves negligence cases where the injury speaks for itself. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it directly addresses the requirement for hospitals receiving Medicare and Medicaid funds.
Which statements concerning licensure as a registered nurse are correct? (select all that apply)
- A. Nurses who graduate from different types of nursing education programs are granted different types of licenses, those with a baccalaureate degree having the most expanded role.
- B. A nursing license cannot be revoked, only suspended.
- C. Each nurse practice act describes requirements for initial licensure.
- D. It is illegal for states to ask about the mental or physical status of an applicant.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
A: Correct. Nurses with different education levels (e.g., associate vs. bachelor's degree) have varied scope of practice. BSN-prepared nurses typically have a broader scope compared to ADN-prepared nurses.
B: Incorrect. Nursing licenses can be revoked or suspended for various reasons such as misconduct or negligence.
C: Incorrect. Nurse practice acts outline licensure requirements, but not specifically for initial licensure.
D: Incorrect. States may inquire about the mental or physical status of applicants to ensure they are fit to practice safely.