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A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after TURP. What indicates a complication?
- A. Clear urine output
- B. Burgundy-colored urine output
- C. Mild pain at the incision site
- D. Temperature of 98.6°F
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Burgundy-colored urine output. This indicates a complication post-TURP due to potential bleeding. Clear urine output (A) is normal. Mild pain at the incision site (C) is expected. Temperature of 98.6°F (D) is within normal range.
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A nurse explains to a client why two chest tubes are in place after a lobectomy. What is the lower chest tube for?
- A. Draining air from the pleural space
- B. Draining blood and fluid from the pleural space
- C. Providing oxygen directly to the lungs
- D. Preventing lung collapse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The lower chest tube after a lobectomy is to drain blood and fluid from the pleural space. This is crucial to prevent complications such as fluid accumulation, which can lead to infection or impaired lung expansion. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Draining air is usually done by the upper chest tube, C) Providing oxygen does not require a chest tube, and D) Preventing lung collapse is more related to the function of the upper chest tube in maintaining negative pressure in the pleural space.
A nurse is caring for a client with a sucking chest wound from a gunshot. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the wound.
- D. Encourage deep breathing exercises.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. This is the priority action to ensure the client receives adequate oxygenation. In a sucking chest wound, air enters the pleural space, leading to a potential pneumothorax, which can compromise oxygenation. Administering oxygen helps maintain oxygen saturation levels and supports respiratory function. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position (choice B) can worsen respiratory distress by increasing pressure on the diaphragm. Applying a warm compress (choice C) may promote bleeding and is not effective in managing a sucking chest wound. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (choice D) can further exacerbate the pneumothorax by allowing more air to enter the pleural space.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 hr ago. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to be elevated?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum glucose
- C. Troponin I
- D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Troponin I. Troponin I is a specific marker for myocardial damage. After a myocardial infarction, the damaged heart muscle releases troponin I into the bloodstream, leading to elevated levels. This helps in diagnosing and monitoring the extent of myocardial damage.
A: Serum sodium levels are not typically affected by a myocardial infarction.
B: Serum glucose levels may be elevated due to stress response but are not specific to myocardial infarction.
D: White blood cell count may be elevated in response to inflammation caused by myocardial infarction, but it is not as specific as troponin I.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has hypertension and a prescription change from metoprolol to metoprolol/hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. With the new medication, I should experience fewer side effects.
- B. I can expect an increase in my blood pressure.
- C. I should expect the medication to work immediately.
- D. I will stop taking the medication when I feel better.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By stating that with the new medication, the client should experience fewer side effects, the client demonstrates understanding that the addition of hydrochlorothiazide may help reduce side effects compared to taking metoprolol alone. This indicates comprehension of the teaching provided by the nurse.
Choice B is incorrect because the client should not expect an increase in blood pressure with the new medication regimen.
Choice C is incorrect as it typically takes time for medications to reach their full effectiveness, so immediate results are not expected.
Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication when feeling better can lead to a worsening of hypertension and other health issues.
Overall, choice A is the best response as it shows an understanding of the medication change and its potential benefits.
A client is receiving treatment for stage IV ovarian cancer and asks the nurse to discuss her prognosis. The client plans to have aggressive surgical, radiation, and chemotherapy treatments. Which of the following prognoses should the nurse discuss with the client?
- A. Poor
- B. Favorable
- C. Uncertain
- D. Excellent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor. In stage IV ovarian cancer, the cancer has spread beyond the ovaries to distant organs, resulting in a poor prognosis. The aggressive treatments may help manage symptoms and prolong survival but the overall prognosis remains poor due to the advanced stage of the cancer. Choice B (Favorable) is incorrect because stage IV ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis. Choice C (Uncertain) is incorrect as the prognosis for stage IV ovarian cancer is generally known to be poor. Choice D (Excellent) is incorrect as stage IV ovarian cancer is not associated with an excellent prognosis due to its advanced stage.