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A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension. For which acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess to prevent complications of this therapy?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic alkalosis. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion and metabolic alkalosis due to excessive loss of chloride and hydrogen ions. The nurse should assess for signs of metabolic alkalosis such as confusion, muscle weakness, and dysrhythmias to prevent complications. Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis are not directly related to furosemide therapy. Metabolic acidosis is less likely due to furosemide's mechanism of action.
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You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be
most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Kussmaul respirations
- C. Increased DTRs
- D. Shallow respirations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shallow respirations. Hypermagnesemia can lead to respiratory depression due to its inhibitory effect on the central nervous system. Shallow respirations are a common respiratory manifestation of hypermagnesemia. Hypertension (choice A) is not typically associated with hypermagnesemia. Kussmaul respirations (choice B) are deep, rapid breathing patterns seen in metabolic acidosis, not hypermagnesemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) (choice C) are more indicative of hypomagnesemia, as magnesium deficiency can lead to hyperexcitability of nerves and muscles, resulting in increased DTRs.
A nurse is caring for clients with electrolyte imbalances on a medical-surgical unit. Which clinical manifestations are correctly paired with the contributing electrolyte imbalance? (Select all that do not apply.)
- A. Hypokalemia Flaccid paralysis with respiratory depression
- B. Hyperphosphatemia Paresthesia with sensations of tingling and numbness
- C. . Hyponatremia Decreased level of consciousness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hyperphosphatemia can lead to paresthesia with sensations of tingling and numbness due to its effect on nerve function.
A, hypokalemia causes muscle weakness but not flaccid paralysis with respiratory depression.
C, hyponatremia typically presents with symptoms such as confusion and seizures, not decreased level of consciousness.
. A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his
home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to
light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of
urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
- A. The man urinated prior to his arrival to the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept
in place.
- B. The man likely has a traumatic brain injury, lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and needs vasopressin.
- C. The man is experiencing symptoms of heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide that results in
decreased urine output. - D. The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that
results in diminished urine output.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The man's elevated heart rate, anxiety, and low urine output indicate a sympathetic reaction. This reaction stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased urine output. The sympathetic response triggers the release of renin, which activates angiotensin II and aldosterone, causing vasoconstriction and water reabsorption in the kidneys, ultimately reducing urine output. Choice A is incorrect because low urine output is not solely due to urinating before arrival. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of traumatic brain injury or ADH deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as atrial natriuretic peptide in heart failure typically increases urine output.
. You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patients plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to as
- A. Nutritional status
- B. Potassium balance
- C. Calcium balance
- D. Fluid volume status
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fluid volume status. Assessment of specific gravity helps to determine the concentration of solutes in the urine, indicating the degree of hydration or dehydration. In SIADH, there is water retention leading to diluted urine, resulting in low specific gravity. Monitoring specific gravity every 4 hours is crucial in assessing the patient's fluid volume status and response to treatment.
A: Nutritional status is not directly assessed by specific gravity.
B: Potassium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity.
C: Calcium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity.
A medical-surgical nurse is concerned about the incidence of complications related to IV therapy, including bloodstream infection. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to the management team to make the biggest impact on decreasing complications
- A. Initiate a dedicated team to insert access devices
- B. . Require additional education for all nurses.
- C. Limit the use of peripheral venous access devices.
- D. Perform quality control testing on skin preparation products.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Initiate a dedicated team to insert access devices. This intervention is the most effective in decreasing complications related to IV therapy because having a dedicated team specialized in inserting access devices ensures that the procedure is done correctly each time, reducing the risk of complications such as bloodstream infections.
Choice B is not as effective because additional education for all nurses may not guarantee consistent skill levels in IV insertion. Choice C may limit access but does not address the root cause of complications. Choice D focuses on skin preparation, which is important but not as impactful as having a specialized team for IV insertion.