Nokea
A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
- A. An 86-year-old man with a history of asthma
- B. A 32-year-old Asian-American man with colorectal cancer
- C. A 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus
- D. A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman who is on hormone therapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease, and the 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus has the highest risk among the options provided.
You may also like to solve these questions
In statistical methodology:
- A. The median and mean are different when the population distribution is skewed
- B. Mode refers to the value that occurs with the highest frequency
- C. The value of 'r' (coefficient of variation) ranges from -1 to +1
- D. Incidence is defined as the number of cases seen in the population at any given period of time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The median and mean differ in skewed distributions because the mean is influenced by extreme values, while the median is not.
Which client has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?
- A. A 16-year old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week
- B. A 65 year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
- C. A 25 year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer
- D. A 70 year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fair-skinned individuals with prolonged sun exposure, such as construction workers, are at higher risk for skin cancer.
The most common cause for testicular pain in boys in 2-10 years of age is
- A. Testicular torsion
- B. Torsion of appendix testis
- C. Epididymitis
- D. Congenital varicocele
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Torsion of the appendix testis is the most common cause of testicular pain in boys aged 2-10 years, as it involves the twisting of a small vestigial remnant.
Which clinical manifestation is included in toxic shock syndrome?
- A. Severe hypertension
- B. Subnormal temperature
- C. Erythematous macular rash
- D. Papular rash over extremities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: One of the diagnostic criteria for toxic shock syndrome is a diffuse macular erythroderma. Hypotension is one of the manifestations. Fever of 38.9° C or higher is a characteristic. Desquamation of the palms and soles of the feet occurs in about 1 to 2 weeks.
A nurse is preparing to administer an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which drug should the nurse administer?
- A. Captopril (Capoten)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
- D. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. Furosemide is a loop diuretic. Spironolactone blocks the action of aldosterone. Chlorothiazide works on the distal tubules.