Nokea
A nurse cares for a client with atrial fibrillation who reports fatigue when completing activities of daily living. What interventions should the nurse implement to address this clients concerns?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula
- B. Provide a sleeping aid prior to bedtime
- C. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day
- D. Ask unlicensed assistive personnel to help bathe the client
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients who have atrial fibrillation are at risk for decreased cardiac output and fatigue when completing activities of daily living. The nurse should schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day to decrease fatigue when completing activities of daily living. The client should be encouraged to participate in self-care activities.
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The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit who suddenly becomes unresponsive and has no pulse. The cardiac monitor shows the rhythm below. After calling for assistance and a defibrillator, which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Perform a pericardial thump
- B. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
- C. Start an 8-gauge intravenous line
- D. Ask the clients family about code status
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client's rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. This is a lethal rhythm that is best treated with immediate defibrillation. While the nurse is waiting for the defibrillator to arrive, the nurse should start CPR. The pericardial thump is not a treatment for ventricular fibrillation. If the client does not already have an IV, other members of the team can insert one after defibrillation. The client's code status should already be known by the nurse prior to the event.
A telemetry nurse assesses a client with third-degree heart block who has wide QRS complexes and a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment should the nurse complete next?
- A. Pulmonary auscultation
- B. Pulse strength and amplitude
- C. Level of consciousness
- D. Mobility and gait stability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less with widened QRS complexes could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse should assess for level of consciousness, lightheadedness, confusion, dyspnea, and seizure activity. Although the other assessments should be completed, the client's level of consciousness is the priority.
A nurse evaluates prescriptions for a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Which medication should the nurse expect to find on this clients medication administration record to prevent a common complication of this condition.
- A. Sotalol (Betapace)
- B. Warfarin (Coumadin)
- C. Atropine (Sal-Tropine)
- D. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation puts clients at risk for developing emboli. Clients at risk for emboli are treated with anticoagulants, such as heparin, enoxaparin, or warfarin. Sotalol, atropine, and lidocaine are not appropriate for this complication.
A nurse assesses a client with tachycardia. Which clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Mid-sternal chest pain
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Mild orthostatic hypotension
- D. P wave touching the T wave
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chest pain, possibly angina, indicates that tachycardia may be increasing the client's myocardial workload and oxygen demand to such an extent that normal oxygen delivery cannot keep pace. This results in myocardial hypoxia and pain. Increased urinary output and mild orthostatic hypotension are not life-threatening conditions and therefore do not require immediate intervention. The P wave touching the T wave indicates tachycardia and should be assessed to determine the underlying rhythm and cause, but this is not as critical as chest pain, which indicates cardiac cell death.
A nurse supervises an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) applying electrocardiographic monitoring. Which statement should the nurse provide to the UAP related to this procedure?
- A. Clean the skin and clip hairs if needed
- B. Add gel to the chest prior to applying them
- C. Place the electrodes on the posterior chest
- D. Turn off oxygen prior to monitoring the client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To ensure the best signal transmission, the skin should be clean and hairs clipped. Electrodes should be placed on the anterior chest, and no additional gel is needed. Oxygen has no impact on electrocardiographic monitoring.