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A nurse caring for a patient with a herniated lumbar disk develops a plan of care for impaired mobility related to nerve compression. Which patient outcome indicates that the plan has been successful?
- A. The patient rates the pain at 3 to 4 on a 0 to 10 scale
- B. The patient has full ROM of the upper extremities
- C. The patient demonstrates correct self-administration of analgesics
- D. The patient is able to ambulate 25 feet without pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient is able to ambulate 25 feet without pain. This outcome indicates successful plan implementation for impaired mobility due to nerve compression. Ambulating without pain shows improved mobility and nerve compression relief. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address mobility improvement. Choice A focuses on pain level, which is important but not a direct measure of mobility. Choice B refers to upper extremities, not the lower extremities affected by lumbar disk herniation. Choice C addresses medication management, not mobility improvement.
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A client is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s laboratory report and notes that he has thrombocytopenia. To which nursing diagnosis should the nurse give the highest priority?
- A. Activity intolerance
- B. Impaired tissue integrity
- C. Impaired oral mucous membranes
- D. Ineffective tissue perfusion: Cerebral, cardiopulmonary, GI
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ineffective tissue perfusion: Cerebral, cardiopulmonary, GI. Thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count, which can lead to impaired blood clotting and potential bleeding. Ineffective tissue perfusion is the most critical concern as it can lead to life-threatening complications like hemorrhage. Activity intolerance, impaired tissue integrity, and impaired oral mucous membranes are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the risk of hemorrhage from thrombocytopenia.
Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with Addison’s disease?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Excessive fluid volume
- D. Hypothermia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Excessive fluid volume. In Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone leading to sodium loss and water retention. This imbalance can result in excessive fluid volume. A) Risk for infection is not directly related to Addison's disease. B) Urinary retention is not a common symptom of Addison's disease. D) Hypothermia is not a typical manifestation of Addison's disease.
Maintaining the infusion rate of hyperalimentation solutions is a nursing responsibility. What side effects would you anticipate from too rapid infusion rate?
- A. Cellular dehydration and potassium
- B. Hypoglycemia and hypovolemia
- C. Potassium excess and CHF
- D. Circulatory overload and hypoglycemia SITUATION: In the recall of the fluids and electrolytes, the nurse should be able to understand the calculations and other conditions related to loss or retention.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Rapid infusion of hyperalimentation solutions can lead to circulatory overload due to increased fluid volume in the circulatory system.
2. Circulatory overload can result in symptoms such as hypertension, tachycardia, and edema.
3. Hypoglycemia can occur as a result of excess insulin release due to the sudden increase in glucose from the hyperalimentation solution.
Summary:
A. Cellular dehydration and potassium: Incorrect. Rapid infusion would lead to fluid overload, not dehydration.
B. Hypoglycemia and hypovolemia: Incorrect. Hypovolemia is unlikely with rapid infusion, and hypoglycemia is a possible side effect.
C. Potassium excess and CHF: Incorrect. Rapid infusion may cause circulatory overload, not CHF, and potassium excess is not a common side effect.
D. Circulatory overload and hypoglycemia: Correct. These are the most likely side effects of rapid
An adult suffered a diving accident and is being brought in by an ambulance intubated and on backboard with a cervical collar. What is the first action the nurse would take on arrival in the hospital?
- A. Take the client vital signs
- B. Insert a large bore IV line
- C. Check the lungs for equal breath sounds bilaterally
- D. Perform a neurologic check using the Glasgow scale
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Upon arrival, checking the lungs for equal breath sounds bilaterally is the first action. This is crucial to assess airway patency and breathing effectiveness in a patient with a history of diving accident and intubation. Ensuring proper oxygenation takes precedence over other actions. Taking vital signs, inserting an IV line, and performing a neurologic check can wait until airway and breathing are adequately assessed.
The nurse is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
- A. Breast self-examination
- B. Mammography
- C. Fine needle aspiration
- D. Chest x-ray
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fine needle aspiration. This procedure involves inserting a thin needle into the lump to extract cells for examination. It provides a definitive diagnosis of breast cancer by analyzing the cells for cancerous features. Breast self-examination (A) is a screening tool but cannot confirm a diagnosis. Mammography (B) is used for screening and detecting abnormalities but also requires further testing for diagnosis. Chest x-ray (D) is not used to diagnose breast cancer.