Nokea
A nurse conducts a physical exam of a client who reports feeling well. Which finding requires clinical intervention?
- A. No acute distress.
- B. No murmur or rub.
- C. Bilateral breath sounds clear.
- D. Fundal height 38 cm.
- E. Purulent cervical discharge.
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Purulent cervical discharge suggests an ongoing infection, likely bacterial cervicitis. It reflects leukocyte accumulation due to pathogenic invasion, requiring clinical intervention to prevent complications.
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A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?
- A. Periodic tingling of fingers.
- B. Absence of clonus.
- C. Leg cramps.
- D. Blurred vision.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blurred vision may result from severe preeclampsia or elevated blood pressure, signifying potential end-organ damage. It requires immediate medical evaluation to prevent progression to eclampsia.
A nurse is admitting a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR.
- B. Administer a dose of betamethasone.
- C. Check the cervix for dilation every 8 hr.
- D. Request that the provider prescribe misoprostol PRN.
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: Continuous monitoring of fetal heart rate (A) provides early detection of distress in placenta previa cases. Betamethasone (B) accelerates fetal lung maturity, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome if preterm delivery occurs.
A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago. The client states, 'I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.' The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?
- A. Postpartum depression.
- B. Taking-in phase.
- C. Postpartum blues.
- D. Taking-hold phase.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Postpartum blues, characterized by mood swings, crying spells, and irritability, typically resolve within two weeks postpartum and are linked to hormonal changes.
Complete the following sentence using the lists of options: The nurse should [option] intramuscular ceftriaxone [purpose].
- A. The nurse should prescribe intramuscular ceftriaxone to decrease the risk of ophthalmia neonatorum in a newborn.
- B. The nurse should identify ceftriaxone as a suitable medication for bacterial infections.
- C. The nurse should use intramuscular ceftriaxone to treat gonorrhea effectively.
- D. The nurse should select intramuscular ceftriaxone for prophylaxis against postpartum infections.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intramuscular ceftriaxone is effective in preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterial prophylaxis inhibits cell wall synthesis, reducing infection transmission from mother to newborn.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?
- A. Polyuria.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Pruritus.
- D. Dry mouth.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pruritus is a frequent side effect of epidural anesthesia, particularly when using opioids like fentanyl, due to histamine release or opioid receptors activation in the spinal cord.