A nurse educator is teaching a module on pharmacokinetics to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the 1st-pass effect?
- A. Some meds block normal receptor activity regulated by endogenous compounds or receptor activity caused by other meds.
- B. Some meds may have to be administered by a nonenteral route to avoid inactivation as they travel through the liver.
- C. Some meds leave the body more slowly & therefore have a greater risk of accumulation & toxicity.
- D. Some meds have a wide safety margin, so there is no need for routine serum medication level monitoring.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. The 1st-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation.
2. Medications administered orally undergo first-pass metabolism in the liver, leading to potential inactivation.
3. Administering such meds through nonenteral routes (e.g., intravenous) bypasses the liver, avoiding inactivation.
4. Choice A discusses receptor activity, not related to the first-pass effect.
5. Choice C refers to drug elimination rate, not specific to the first-pass effect.
6. Choice D discusses safety margin and monitoring, not directly related to drug metabolism.
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A nursing instructor is reviewing the wound healing process with a group of nursing students. They should be able to identify which of the following alterations as a wound or injury that heals by secondary intention? Select all.
- A. Stage III pressure ulcer
- B. Sutured surgical incision
- C. Casted bone fracture
- D. Laceration sealed with adhesive
- E. Open burn area
Correct Answer: A, E
Rationale: The correct answers are A and E because wounds healing by secondary intention involve tissue loss and heal from the bottom up with granulation tissue filling in the wound. A Stage III pressure ulcer and an open burn area are examples of wounds that heal by secondary intention due to tissue loss.
Choices B and D are incorrect because sutured surgical incisions and lacerations sealed with adhesive heal by primary intention, where wound edges are approximated and heal with minimal scarring. Choice C, a casted bone fracture, is incorrect as fractures heal through a different process involving the formation of callus and subsequent bone remodeling, not by secondary intention healing.
A nurse is teaching an adult client how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the proper technique?
- A. I will straighten my ear canal by pulling my ear down & back.
- B. I will gently apply pressure w/my finger to the tragus of my ear after putting in the drops.
- C. I will insert the nozzle of the ear drop bottle snug into my ear before squeezing the drops in.
- D. After the drops are in, I will place a cotton ball all the way into my ear canal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will gently apply pressure with my finger to the tragus of my ear after putting in the drops." This statement indicates understanding of the proper technique because applying pressure to the tragus helps the ear drops to reach the ear canal. The tragus is a small cartilaginous projection in front of the ear canal that, when pressed, helps to facilitate the passage of the drops into the ear. This action ensures proper distribution of the medication for effective treatment.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Pulling the ear down and back is a technique used for administering ear drops in children, not adults.
C: Inserting the nozzle snug into the ear can cause injury to the ear canal and eardrum.
D: Placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal can prevent the drops from reaching the ear canal and may cause blockage.
A nurse is evaluating a client's neurosensory system. To evaluate stereognosis, she would ask the client to close his eyes & identify which of the following items?
- A. A word she whispers 30cm from his ear
- B. A number she traces on the palm of his hand
- C. The vibration of a tuning fork she places on his foot
- D. A familiar object she places in his hand
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A familiar object she places in his hand. Stereognosis is the ability to recognize objects by touch without visual cues. By asking the client to identify a familiar object placed in his hand with his eyes closed, the nurse is testing his ability to perceive and interpret tactile sensations. This assessment helps evaluate the client's sensory perception and integration in the neurosensory system. The other choices are incorrect because they do not specifically assess stereognosis. Choice A involves auditory perception, choice B involves tactile perception but not recognition of objects, and choice C involves vibratory perception rather than object recognition through touch.
A nurse is providing teaching about managing anticholinergic effects for a client who has a new prescription for oxybutynin (Ditropan XL). Which of the following are appropriate to include in the teaching? Select all.
- A. Take frequent sips of water
- B. Wear sunglasses when exposed to sunlight
- C. Use a soft toothbrush when brushing teeth
- D. Take the medication with an antacid
- E. Urinate prior to taking the medication
Correct Answer: A, B, E
Rationale: The correct choices for managing anticholinergic effects of oxybutynin are A, B, and E. A: Taking frequent sips of water helps combat dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect. B: Wearing sunglasses when exposed to sunlight helps with sensitivity to light, another anticholinergic effect. E: Urinating prior to taking the medication helps reduce urinary retention, a potential side effect.
Incorrect choices: C: Using a soft toothbrush is not directly related to managing anticholinergic effects. D: Taking the medication with an antacid may interfere with its absorption and is not recommended.
A nurse is preparing to perform endotracheal suctioning for a client. Which of the following are appropriate guidelines for the nurse to follow? Select all.
- A. Apply suction while withdrawing the catheter
- B. Perform suctioning on a routine basis, Q2-3 hours
- C. Maintain medical asepsis during suctioning
- D. Use a new catheter for each suctioning attempt
- E. Limit suctioning to 2-3 attempts
Correct Answer: A, D, E
Rationale: Correct Answer: A, D, E
Rationale:
A: Apply suction while withdrawing the catheter - This guideline ensures effective removal of secretions without damaging the airway.
D: Use a new catheter for each suctioning attempt - Reusing catheters can introduce infection and compromise patient safety.
E: Limit suctioning to 2-3 attempts - Excessive suctioning can lead to hypoxia and damage to the airway. Limiting attempts is safer for the patient.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Performing suctioning on a routine basis, Q2-3 hours can be harmful as it may lead to unnecessary trauma to the airway and increased risk of infection.
C: Maintaining medical asepsis during suctioning is a general guideline but not specific to endotracheal suctioning.