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A nurse has included the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Latex Allergy Response in a patients plan of care. The presence of what chronic health problem would most likely prompt this diagnosis?
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. HIV
- C. Spina bifida
- D. Hypogammaglobulinemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypogammaglobulinemia. This chronic health problem predisposes individuals to latex allergies due to reduced levels of immunoglobulins, increasing susceptibility to allergic reactions. Latex contains proteins that can trigger immune responses in individuals with compromised immune systems.
Choice A: Herpes simplex is a viral infection and does not directly relate to latex allergies.
Choice B: HIV weakens the immune system but is not specifically associated with latex allergies.
Choice C: Spina bifida is a congenital condition affecting the spinal cord and does not directly impact the likelihood of latex allergies.
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The nurse has taken shift report on her patients and has been told that one patient has an ocular condition that has primarily affected the rods in his eyes. Considering this information, what should the nurse do while caring for the patient?
- A. Ensure adequate lighting in the patients room.
- B. Provide a dimly lit room to aid vision by limiting contrast.
- C. Carefully point out color differences for the patient.
- D. Carefully point out fine details for the patient.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A because rods are responsible for vision in low light conditions. By ensuring adequate lighting in the patient's room, the nurse can optimize the patient's visual acuity. This will help the patient navigate their environment more safely.
Summary:
- B is incorrect because dim lighting would further limit the patient's already compromised vision.
- C is incorrect as the patient's ability to perceive color may not be affected by rod dysfunction.
- D is incorrect as the patient may struggle to see fine details due to rod impairment.
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?
- A. Ask the patient when she last had anything to eat or drink.
- B. Take a culture of the lesions to verify the involved organism.
- C. Ask the patient if she has had unprotected sex since her outbreak.
- D. Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection.
A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor.
B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation.
C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario.
Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.
An advanced practice nurse has performed a Rinne test on a new patient. During the test, the patient reports that air-conducted sound is louder than bone-conducted sound. How should the nurse best interpret this assessment finding?
- A. The patients hearing is likely normal.
- B. The patient is at risk for tinnitus.
- C. The patient likely has otosclerosis.
- D. The patient likely has sensorineural hearing loss. Chapter 69: Select Neuro Topics: Trigeminal Neuralgia & Bell’s Palsy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The patient's hearing is likely normal. This interpretation is based on the normal Rinne test result, where air-conducted sound is expected to be louder than bone-conducted sound. This finding indicates that the patient has intact air conduction and no significant conductive hearing loss. Option B is incorrect because tinnitus is not directly related to the Rinne test results. Option C is incorrect as otosclerosis would typically present with abnormal Rinne test results showing bone-conducted sound to be louder. Option D is incorrect as sensorineural hearing loss would not typically affect the Rinne test results in this way.
A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma and the nurse is preparing health education regarding the patients medication regimen. The patient states that she is eager to beat this disease and looks forward to the time that she will no longer require medication. How should the nurse best respond?
- A. You have a great attitude. This will likely shorten the amount of time that you need medications.
- B. In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
- C. Most people are treated until their intraocular pressure goes below 50 mm Hg.
- D. You can likely expect a minimum of 6 months of treatment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
1. Glaucoma is a chronic condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure.
2. Lifelong treatment is usually necessary to manage intraocular pressure and prevent vision loss.
3. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to worsening of the condition.
4. Therefore, the nurse should educate the patient about the need for ongoing medication to manage glaucoma effectively.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Having a positive attitude is beneficial, but it does not shorten the duration of glaucoma treatment.
C: Incorrect. The target intraocular pressure is usually below 21 mm Hg, not 50 mm Hg.
D: Incorrect. Glaucoma treatment is typically long-term, not limited to 6 months.
Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?
- A. Previous birth of large infant
- B. Maternal age younger than 25 years
- C. Underweight prior to pregnancy
- D. Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Previous birth of large infant. This factor increases the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus due to a history of delivering a large baby, indicating a higher likelihood of insulin resistance in subsequent pregnancies. Maternal age younger than 25 years (B) is not a known risk factor for gestational diabetes. Being underweight prior to pregnancy (C) is actually associated with a decreased risk of gestational diabetes. A previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus (D) is a separate condition and does not directly increase the risk of gestational diabetes.