Nokea
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who was admitted for diazepam toxicity. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Protamine sulfate
- D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flumazenil. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine toxicity, such as diazepam. Administering Flumazenil in this case can help reverse the sedative and respiratory depressive effects of diazepam.
Incorrect choices:
A: Vitamin K is used for blood clotting disorders, not for benzodiazepine toxicity.
B: Calcium gluconate is used for treating calcium deficiencies, not for benzodiazepine toxicity.
C: Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not benzodiazepines.
In summary, Flumazenil is the appropriate choice to counter diazepam toxicity by antagonizing its effects on benzodiazepine receptors, while the other options are unrelated to managing benzodiazepine toxicity.
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A nurse is caring for an adult client who is receiving albuterol inhalation treatments. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor the client? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Shakiness
- B. Fatigue
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Tachycardia
- E. Palpitations
Correct Answer: A, D, E
Rationale: The correct adverse effects to monitor for with albuterol inhalation treatments are shakiness, tachycardia, and palpitations. Albuterol is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that can cause sympathetic stimulation, leading to these specific side effects. Shakiness is due to the stimulation of beta-2 receptors in muscles, tachycardia results from the activation of beta-1 receptors in the heart, and palpitations can occur due to increased heart rate. Fatigue and tinnitus are not commonly associated with albuterol use, making choices B and C incorrect. In summary, the correct answers are related to the sympathetic effects of albuterol, while the incorrect choices are not typically seen with this medication.
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of client who has been taking gemfibrozil for 3 months. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased serum creatinine
- B. Reduced serum calcium
- C. Increased Hgb
- D. Reduced triglycerides
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced triglycerides. Gemfibrozil is a lipid-lowering medication that works by decreasing triglyceride levels. The nurse should expect a reduction in triglycerides as a therapeutic effect of the medication. Option A (Increased serum creatinine) is incorrect as gemfibrozil typically does not affect creatinine levels. Option B (Reduced serum calcium) is incorrect as gemfibrozil does not impact calcium levels. Option C (Increased Hgb) is incorrect as gemfibrozil does not directly affect hemoglobin levels. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a decrease in triglyceride levels as the expected finding in a client taking gemfibrozil.
A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following client identifiers should the nurse use to verify that the correct client is receiving the medication? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Date of birth
- B. Facility identification number
- C. Name
- D. Physical location
- E. Room number
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: The correct identifiers for verifying the client are date of birth, facility identification number, and name. Date of birth ensures the client's age and helps avoid mix-ups with clients of the same name. Facility identification number uniquely identifies the client within the facility. Name is crucial for confirming the client's identity verbally. Physical location and room number are not reliable identifiers as clients may move within the facility. Overall, using a combination of unique identifiers helps prevent medication errors and ensures the correct client receives the right medication.
A nurse is caring for a client who has Graves' disease and is to start therapy with propylthiouracil. The nurse should expect which of the following outcomes?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Decreased WBC count
- C. Increased Hgb
- D. Increased blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased heart rate. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication used to treat hyperthyroidism in conditions like Graves' disease. It works by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Since hyperthyroidism can cause an increased heart rate due to the excess thyroid hormones, the expected outcome of propylthiouracil therapy is a decreased heart rate as it helps normalize thyroid hormone levels. The other choices are incorrect because propylthiouracil does not directly affect WBC count (B), Hgb levels (C), or blood pressure (D) in the context of treating hyperthyroidism.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking high doses of aspirin to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has salicylism?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Nuchal rigidity
- C. Pharyngitis
- D. Pruritus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinnitus. Salicylism is a toxic condition caused by high levels of salicylates, such as aspirin, in the body. Tinnitus is a common early sign of salicylism due to its ototoxic effects on the auditory nerve. Nuchal rigidity, pharyngitis, and pruritus are not typically associated with salicylism. Nuchal rigidity is more indicative of meningitis, pharyngitis suggests a throat infection, and pruritus is itching which is not specific to salicylism. Therefore, tinnitus is the most relevant finding in this context.