Nokea
A nurse in a clinic is reviewing laboratory reports for a group of clients. Which of the following diseases should the nurse report to the state health department?
- A. Pertussis
- B. Group B streptococcal disease
- C. Respiratory syncytial virus
- D. Rotavirus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pertussis is the correct answer because it is a reportable disease that healthcare providers are required by law to report to public health authorities. This infectious disease poses a significant public health risk and needs to be monitored closely to prevent outbreaks and implement control measures. Group B streptococcal disease, Respiratory syncytial virus, and Rotavirus are important conditions but are not typically reportable to the state health department. These diseases may require specific precautions in healthcare settings, but they do not fall under mandatory reporting requirements.
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Which of the following best describes evidence-based practice?
- A. Using outdated research
- B. Relying on personal experience alone
- C. Integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence
- D. Disregarding patient preferences
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Evidence-based practice involves integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence to make informed decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect as evidence-based practice relies on current and relevant research. Choice B is incorrect as it emphasizes the importance of not relying solely on personal experience. Choice D is incorrect as patient preferences play a significant role in evidence-based practice.
A client with DM has an above-knee amputation because of severe peripheral vascular disease. Two days following surgery, when preparing the client for dinner, what is the nurse's primary responsibility?
- A. Check the client's serum glucose level
- B. Assist the client out of bed to the chair
- C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
- D. Ensure that the client's residual limb is elevated
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's serum glucose level. In a client with diabetes who just had surgery, monitoring the serum glucose level is crucial to ensure proper management of the condition. This helps in preventing complications related to blood sugar fluctuations. Assisting the client out of bed may be important but not the primary responsibility at this time. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position or ensuring the residual limb is elevated are important interventions for comfort and circulation but are not the primary concern in this scenario.
A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
- B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
- C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
- D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.
A client with a tumor refuses surgery, but the client's partner wants it. Which is the deciding factor in determining if the surgery will be done?
- A. Whether the partner is the client's durable power of attorney for healthcare
- B. Whether the client understands the risk of refusing the procedure
- C. Whether the client's refusal is based on religious belief
- D. Whether the facility's ethical committee reaches a consensus on the case
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client's understanding of the risks involved in refusing the surgery is crucial in determining the course of action. In this scenario, the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity take precedence. Choice A is not directly relevant to the decision-making process regarding surgery. Choice C, religious beliefs, may influence the decision but should not be the determining factor in this case. Choice D involving the facility's ethical committee is not typically involved in individual patient care decisions.
Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
- B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
- C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
- D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.