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A nurse in a clinic is teaching information about cervical polyps with a client who has a new diagnosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Postcoital bleeding may occur.
- B. A pelvic ultrasound is required for diagnosis.
- C. Cervical polyps usually resolve without treatment.
- D. Cervical polyps are rarely associated with cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postcoital bleeding may occur. This information is essential to include in teaching about cervical polyps because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause bleeding, especially after intercourse. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this symptom to monitor for any abnormal bleeding and seek medical attention if necessary.
Option B is incorrect because a pelvic ultrasound is not always required for diagnosing cervical polyps; they can often be diagnosed through a pelvic exam. Option C is incorrect because not all cervical polyps resolve on their own and may require treatment if symptomatic. Option D is incorrect because while cervical polyps are usually benign, they can be associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer in some cases.
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the manifestations of uterine prolapse. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid heavy lifting.
- B. Feces can be present in the vagina.
- C. I might experience urinary incontinence.
- D. Pelvic pressure may occur during intercourse.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Feces present in the vagina is not a manifestation of uterine prolapse; it is a symptom of rectocele. The other choices are correct for uterine prolapse: A - Heavy lifting can worsen prolapse, C - Urinary incontinence is common due to pelvic floor weakness, D - Pelvic pressure during intercourse is a symptom. Therefore, the client mentioning feces in the vagina indicates a need for further teaching on distinguishing between uterine prolapse and rectocele symptoms.
A nurse is teaching a middle-aged client about hypertension. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Calcium channel blockers are the first choice for hypertension.
- B. Beta-blockers are the first type of medication for hypertension.
- C. ACE inhibitors are the first choice for hypertension.
- D. Diuretics are the first type of medication to control hypertension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diuretics are the first-line treatment for hypertension as they reduce blood volume, lowering blood pressure.
A nurse assesses a client in skeletal traction. What indicates infection at the pin sites?
- A. Pallor
- B. Fever
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Infection at the pin sites in skeletal traction commonly presents with systemic signs like fever. Fever is a typical response to infection as the body tries to fight off the invading pathogens. Pallor, bradycardia, and elevated blood pressure are not specific indicators of infection at pin sites. Pallor may indicate poor perfusion, bradycardia is a slow heart rate which is not typically associated with infection, and elevated blood pressure can be a response to various stressors but not a specific sign of infection at pin sites. In summary, fever is the most reliable indicator of infection at pin sites due to its systemic nature.
A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with bleeding esophageal varices and has an esophagogastric balloon tamponade with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube to control the bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Provide frequent oral and nares care.
- B. Monitor the client's oxygen levels.
- C. Administer intravenous antibiotics.
- D. Remove the tube immediately after 24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide frequent oral and nares care. This is important because the Sengstaken-Blakemore tube can cause discomfort and irritation to the oral and nasal mucosa, leading to potential complications such as infection or pressure ulcers. Providing frequent oral and nares care helps prevent these complications and ensures the client's comfort.
Choice B is incorrect because monitoring oxygen levels is not directly related to the care of a client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube.
Choice C is incorrect because administering intravenous antibiotics is not a routine intervention for a client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube unless there is a specific indication for infection.
Choice D is incorrect because the Sengstaken-Blakemore tube should not be removed immediately after 24 hours. The timing of removal should be determined based on the client's condition and the healthcare provider's orders.
A nurse at a rehabilitation center is planning care for a client who had a left hemispheric cerebrovascular accident (CVA) 3 weeks ago. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the client's rehabilitation program?
- A. Establish the ability to communicate effectively.
- B. Increase mobility on the affected side.
- C. Increase independence in activities of daily living.
- D. Prevent falls during rehabilitation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Establish the ability to communicate effectively. Communication is a key aspect affected by left hemispheric CVA, which can lead to aphasia or difficulty in speaking and understanding language. By prioritizing communication goals, the nurse can enhance the client's quality of life, facilitate social interactions, and improve overall rehabilitation outcomes. Increasing mobility (B) and independence in activities of daily living (C) are important but may not directly address the communication deficits. Preventing falls (D) is also crucial but not specific to the client's primary deficit.