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A nurse in a clinic is teaching information about cervical polyps with a client who has a new diagnosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Postcoital bleeding may occur.
- B. A pelvic ultrasound is required for diagnosis.
- C. Cervical polyps usually resolve without treatment.
- D. Cervical polyps are rarely associated with cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postcoital bleeding may occur. This information is essential to include in teaching about cervical polyps because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause bleeding, especially after intercourse. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this symptom to monitor for any abnormal bleeding and seek medical attention if necessary.
Option B is incorrect because a pelvic ultrasound is not always required for diagnosing cervical polyps; they can often be diagnosed through a pelvic exam. Option C is incorrect because not all cervical polyps resolve on their own and may require treatment if symptomatic. Option D is incorrect because while cervical polyps are usually benign, they can be associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer in some cases.
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A nurse is implementing a plan of care for a client who has AIDS with recurring pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a sputum culture
- B. Administer a chest X-ray
- C. Monitor for fever
- D. Provide oxygen therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain a sputum culture. This is essential to identify the specific pathogen causing the pneumonia in the client with AIDS. By identifying the pathogen, appropriate antibiotic therapy can be initiated promptly. Administering a chest X-ray (B) may help in evaluating the extent of pneumonia but does not address the underlying cause. Monitoring for fever (C) is important but does not provide specific information needed for targeted treatment. Providing oxygen therapy (D) may be necessary but does not address the root cause of the pneumonia.
A nurse is teaching a client about the causes of osteoporosis. The nurse should include which of the following types of medication therapy as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
- A. Thyroid hormones
- B. Antihypertensives
- C. Steroids
- D. Insulin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Steroids. Steroids, specifically glucocorticoids, are known to increase the risk of osteoporosis by decreasing bone formation and increasing bone resorption. Long-term use of steroids can lead to bone loss, making individuals more susceptible to fractures. Thyroid hormones (A) do not directly cause osteoporosis. Antihypertensives (B) and insulin (D) are not associated with increased risk of osteoporosis.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a pressure ulcer. The nurse should identify an elevation in which of the following laboratory values as an indication that the client has developed an infection?
- A. Serum albumin level
- B. WBC count
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. BUN
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: WBC count. An elevation in WBC count indicates an immune response to infection, as white blood cells increase to fight off pathogens. In the context of a pressure ulcer, an elevated WBC count suggests the presence of infection due to the body's response to foreign organisms. Other choices are not directly related to infection in this scenario. Serum albumin level (A) reflects nutritional status, serum potassium level (C) indicates electrolyte balance, and BUN (D) reflects kidney function. Hence, they are not specific indicators of infection in a client with a pressure ulcer.
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. Which of the following laboratory values is the nurse's priority?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- B. Platelet count of 350,000/mm3
- C. CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. In HIV care, monitoring the CD4-T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the immune system's ability to fight infections. A low CD4 count indicates a weakened immune system, increasing the client's susceptibility to opportunistic infections. This value guides treatment decisions, such as initiating antiretroviral therapy. The other options, while important, do not directly reflect the client's immune status in the context of HIV. Hemoglobin and platelet counts are relevant for assessing anemia and clotting function, respectively. White blood cell count is a general indicator of infection or inflammation. Prioritizing CD4-T-cell count ensures appropriate management of HIV and prevention of complications.
A female middle adult client tells a nurse that she tested positive for a mutant BRCA1 gene. The nurse should recognize that the client is at an increased risk for which of the following situations?
- A. Developing breast cancer
- B. Developing ovarian cancer
- C. Developing uterine cancer
- D. Developing cervical cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Developing breast cancer. The BRCA1 gene mutation is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer in women. The mutation affects the body's ability to repair damaged DNA, leading to a higher likelihood of developing breast cancer. This risk is significantly higher in women with the mutant BRCA1 gene compared to those without it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the BRCA1 gene mutation is not specifically linked to an increased risk of ovarian, uterine, or cervical cancer. Therefore, the client should be counseled and monitored closely for early detection and prevention of breast cancer.