Nokea
A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a client who requests an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client's history should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Cholecystitis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Human papillomavirus
- D. Migraine headaches
- E. Anxiety Disorder
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and D. Cholecystitis is a contraindication due to the risk of gallbladder disease. Hypertension is a contraindication because estrogen in oral contraceptives can exacerbate hypertension. Migraine headaches are a contraindication due to the increased risk of stroke. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are not contraindications for oral contraceptives.
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A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.)
- A. Identify the attitude of the head.
- B. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
- C. Determine the location of the fetal back.
- D. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.
Correct Answer: B, C, D, A
Rationale: The correct order for performing Leopold maneuvers is B, C, D, A. Firstly, palpating the fundus (B) helps determine the fetal part. Next, determining the location of the fetal back (C) guides the nurse to find the fetal back. Palpating for the fetal part at the inlet (D) helps identify its presentation. Lastly, identifying the attitude of the head (A) completes the assessment. Other choices are not relevant to the sequential assessment in Leopold maneuvers.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is in labor and is to have an amniotomy. Which of the following assessments should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. O2 saturation.
- B. Temperature.
- C. Blood pressure.
- D. Urinary output.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Temperature. During an amniotomy, there is a risk of infection due to the introduction of bacteria into the amniotic fluid. Monitoring the client's temperature is crucial as an elevated temperature could indicate infection, which can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. O2 saturation (A), blood pressure (C), and urinary output (D) are important assessments but not the priority in this situation. O2 saturation is typically monitored continuously during labor, blood pressure can fluctuate during labor but is not directly impacted by amniotomy, and urinary output is important for assessing hydration status but does not take precedence over monitoring for infection.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is to undergo a nonstress test. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Maintain the client NPO throughout the procedure.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Instruct the client to massage the abdomen to stimulate fetal movement.
- D. Instruct the client to press the provided button each time fetal movement is detected.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Instruct the client to press the provided button each time fetal movement is detected. This action is essential during a nonstress test to track fetal movement and heart rate patterns. By pressing the button each time fetal movement is felt, the nurse can correlate these movements with any changes in the fetal heart rate, providing valuable information about fetal well-being. Maintaining the client NPO (A) is not necessary for a nonstress test. Placing the client in a supine position (B) can reduce blood flow to the fetus and is not recommended. Instructing the client to massage the abdomen (C) may lead to inaccurate test results by artificially stimulating fetal movements.
A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is receiving IV fluid replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 105/64 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate 98/min.
- C. Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr.
- D. Urine negative for ketones.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr. In hyperemesis gravidarum, excessive vomiting leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring urine output is crucial for assessing renal perfusion. A urine output of 280 mL in 8 hours is low, indicating possible renal impairment. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum and receiving IV fluids. Blood pressure of 105/64 mm Hg is acceptable, heart rate of 98/min is slightly elevated but not alarming, and urine negative for ketones indicates adequate fluid replacement.
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a 16-year-old adolescent.
Exhibit 1
History and Physical
Adolescent is sexually active with two current partners.
IUD in place
Reports not using condoms during sexual activity.
History of type 1 diabetes mellitus”
Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as being consistent with the adolescent's assessment findings? For each finding click to specify if the assessment findings are consistent with trichomoniasis, gonorrhea, or candidiasis. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
- A. Abdominal pain.
- B. Greenish discharge.
- C. Diabetes.
- D. Pain on urination.
- E. Absence of condom.
Correct Answer: B, D
Rationale: To determine the correct answer, we look at the assessment findings. For "Greenish discharge," this is consistent with both trichomoniasis and gonorrhea. Trichomoniasis typically presents with a frothy, yellow-green discharge, while gonorrhea can cause a greenish or yellow discharge. "Pain on urination" is also a common symptom of both gonorrhea and trichomoniasis. Therefore, the correct answer is B, D. Abdominal pain is not specific to any of the mentioned conditions and is not a defining symptom. Diabetes is not directly related to the assessment findings provided. The absence of a condom is not a symptom but rather a risk factor for sexually transmitted infections.