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A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
- B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
- C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
- D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.
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A client who is having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse, "It just doesn't seem worth it anymore. Why not end my misery?" Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Why do you think your life is not worth it anymore?
- B. Do you have a plan to end your life?
- C. I need to know what you mean by misery
- D. You can trust me and tell me what you're thinking
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate response by the nurse is to ask about the client's plan to end their life. This question helps to assess the severity of the client's suicidal ideation and the immediacy of the risk, allowing the nurse to determine the appropriate level of intervention. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the immediate risk assessment needed in this situation.
A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
- B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
- C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
- D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.
A client has a prescription for sertraline to treat depression. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication treatment plan?
- A. I will start feeling better immediately after starting the medication
- B. I can expect to urinate frequently while on this medication
- C. I understand I may experience difficulty sleeping on this medication
- D. I should decrease my sodium intake while on this medication
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Difficulty sleeping is a common side effect of sertraline, an SSRI used to treat depression. Clients should be educated to expect this, especially during the early stages of treatment. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline may take a few weeks to show its full effect. Choice B is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is unrelated to the side effects or management of sertraline.
A client is taking levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should indicate that the medication is effective?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Absence of seizures
- D. Decreased inflammation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight loss. Levothyroxine is used to treat hypothyroidism, which is characterized by symptoms such as weight gain. Therefore, weight loss in a client taking levothyroxine indicates that the medication is effective in managing hypothyroidism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because levothyroxine primarily affects thyroid function and metabolism, not blood pressure, seizures, or inflammation.
A charge nurse is discussing the use of applying ice to a client's injured knee with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following is a benefit of this treatment?
- A. Systemic analgesic effect
- B. Increase in metabolism
- C. Decreased capillary permeability
- D. Vasodilation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased capillary permeability. Ice application helps decrease capillary permeability, which in turn reduces swelling and inflammation at the injury site. This vasoconstriction effect helps to limit the extent of the injury. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Applying ice locally does not produce a systemic analgesic effect but rather a localized numbing effect. It does not increase metabolism but rather slows down metabolic processes in the affected area. Additionally, ice application causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.