A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Liver damage
- B. Renal failure
- C. Gastric bleeding
- D. Heart attack
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.
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The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?
- A. The client reports minimal pain and discomfort.
- B. The urine appears clear and free of clots.
- C. The client has no signs of infection.
- D. The client is able to void independently.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.
During an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash, which nursing action should receive the highest priority?
- A. Wearing gloves during the procedure
- B. Using a sterile solution
- C. Irrigating from the inner to the outer canthus
- D. Positioning the client's head properly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The highest priority during an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash is wearing gloves during the procedure. This action is crucial as it helps prevent contamination and protects both the client and the nurse. Using a sterile solution is important but not as critical as ensuring the nurse's safety by wearing gloves. Irrigating from the inner to the outer canthus and positioning the client's head properly are essential steps in eye irrigation, but they are not the highest priority in this scenario compared to ensuring infection control by wearing gloves.
A 15-year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which statement from the adolescent indicates the need for additional teaching?
- A. I will only have to wear this for 6 months.
- B. I should inspect my skin daily.
- C. The brace will be worn day and night.
- D. I can take it off when I shower.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The statement 'I will only have to wear this for 6 months' indicates a need for additional teaching because the Milwaukee Brace is typically worn for 12-18 months, not just 6 months. Choice B is correct as inspecting the skin daily is important to prevent skin breakdown. Choice C is correct as the brace is usually worn day and night for effectiveness. Choice D is correct as the brace can be removed when showering to maintain hygiene.
During an eye assessment, what action should the nurse take to assess a client's extraocular eye movements?
- A. Position the client 6.1 m (20 ft) away from the Snellen chart
- B. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye
- D. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 inches) away from the client's eye
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action to assess extraocular eye movements effectively. This technique evaluates the function of the six extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Positioning the client 6.1 m away from the Snellen chart is more relevant for visual acuity testing. Asking the client to cover their right eye during the assessment is not necessary for evaluating extraocular movements. Holding a finger at a specific distance in front of the client's eye is not an appropriate method for assessing extraocular eye movements.
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
- B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
- C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
- D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.